ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client is in labor, and a nurse observes late decelerations on the electronic fetal monitor. What should the nurse identify as the first action that the registered nurse should take?
- A. Assist the client into the left-lateral position
- B. Apply a fetal scalp electrode
- C. Insert an IV catheter
- D. Perform a vaginal exam
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The initial action should be to assist the client into the left-lateral position to optimize maternal blood flow and oxygenation to the fetus, thereby improving uteroplacental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. This position helps reduce pressure on the vena cava, enhancing blood return to the heart and improving circulation to the placenta. Applying a fetal scalp electrode (Choice B) is not the first action indicated for late decelerations. Inserting an IV catheter (Choice C) and performing a vaginal exam (Choice D) are not primary interventions for addressing late decelerations related to uteroplacental insufficiency.
2. A client in the delivery room just delivered a newborn, and the nurse is planning to promote parent-infant bonding. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Encourage the parents to touch and explore the newborn's features
- B. Limit noise and interruptions in the delivery room
- C. Place the newborn at the client's breast
- D. Position the newborn skin-to-skin on the client's chest
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Positioning the newborn skin-to-skin on the client's chest is the priority action to promote warmth, regulate the newborn's heart rate and breathing, and enhance parent-infant bonding. This method facilitates early bonding, stabilizes the baby's temperature, and encourages breastfeeding initiation. Encouraging parents to touch and explore the newborn's features is important but not the priority at this moment. Limiting noise and interruptions can be beneficial but not as crucial as skin-to-skin contact for bonding. Placing the newborn at the client's breast is essential for breastfeeding but should come after the initial skin-to-skin contact for bonding and temperature regulation.
3. A client at 42 weeks of gestation is having an ultrasound. For which of the following conditions should the nurse prepare for an amnioinfusion? (Select all that apply)
- A. Oligohydramnios
- B. Hydramnios
- C. Fetal cord compression
- D. Polyhydramnios
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is "Oligohydramnios". Oligohydramnios, which refers to low amniotic fluid volume, may necessitate amnioinfusion to address the deficiency. Fetal cord compression is another indication for amnioinfusion as it can help alleviate pressure on the umbilical cord. Hydramnios or polyhydramnios, conversely, involve an excess of amniotic fluid and do not typically require amnioinfusion. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect in this context.
4. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation and reports daily mild headaches is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Administer ibuprofen 400 mg twice daily.
- B. Recommend that the client perform conscious relaxation techniques daily.
- C. Give the client ginseng tea with each meal.
- D. Instruct the client to soak in a bath with a water temperature of 105°F for 15 minutes daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Mild headaches during pregnancy can be common and are often related to stress and tension. Recommending conscious relaxation techniques daily can help to relieve tension, reduce stress, and alleviate headaches without the need for medication, which is safer during pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect as ibuprofen is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus. Choice C is incorrect because ginseng tea is not recommended during pregnancy as it may have adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as soaking in a hot bath with a water temperature of 105°F can raise the body temperature, which is not safe during pregnancy.
5. During an assessment, a client at 26 weeks of gestation presents with which of the following clinical manifestations that should be reported to the provider?
- A. Leukorrhea
- B. Supine hypotension
- C. Periodic numbness of the fingers
- D. Decreased urine output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During pregnancy, decreased urine output can be indicative of decreased renal perfusion and impaired fetal well-being. It can also be a sign of preeclampsia when associated with symptoms like increased blood pressure, proteinuria, and decreased fetal activity. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report this finding to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Leukorrhea is a common finding in pregnancy and not typically concerning. Supine hypotension and periodic numbness of the fingers can be managed by changing positions or adjusting posture and are not as urgent as decreased urine output in this context.
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