ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation and reports daily mild headaches is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Administer ibuprofen 400 mg twice daily.
- B. Recommend that the client perform conscious relaxation techniques daily.
- C. Give the client ginseng tea with each meal.
- D. Instruct the client to soak in a bath with a water temperature of 105°F for 15 minutes daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Mild headaches during pregnancy can be common and are often related to stress and tension. Recommending conscious relaxation techniques daily can help to relieve tension, reduce stress, and alleviate headaches without the need for medication, which is safer during pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect as ibuprofen is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus. Choice C is incorrect because ginseng tea is not recommended during pregnancy as it may have adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as soaking in a hot bath with a water temperature of 105°F can raise the body temperature, which is not safe during pregnancy.
2. A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor has fetal heart tones located above the umbilicus at midline. The fetus is likely in which of the following positions?
- A. Cephalic
- B. Transverse
- C. Posterior
- D. Frank breech
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fetal heart tones above the umbilicus at midline are indicative of a breech presentation, specifically a frank breech position. In a frank breech position, the baby's buttocks are presenting first, which aligns with the fetal heart tones being above the umbilicus. This position indicates that the baby is not in the normal head-down position for birth, which can impact the delivery process and may require specific interventions. Cephalic presentation (Choice A) is the normal head-down position for birth, transverse lie (Choice B) is when the baby is positioned horizontally in the uterus, and posterior position (Choice C) refers to the baby's back being positioned towards the mother's back.
3. A client who is at 22 weeks of gestation reports concern about the blotchy hyperpigmentation on her forehead. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Tell the client to follow up with a dermatologist.
- B. Explain to the client this is an expected occurrence.
- C. Instruct the client to increase her intake of vitamin D.
- D. Inform the client she might have an allergy to her skin care products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is a blotchy, brown hyperpigmentation of the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead. It is most common in dark-skinned women and is caused by an increase in melanotropin during pregnancy. This condition typically appears after 16 weeks of gestation and gradually increases until delivery for 50 to 70% of women. The nurse should reassure the client that this is an expected occurrence, which usually fades after delivery. Therefore, explaining to the client that this is an expected occurrence is the appropriate action in this situation. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because chloasma is a common skin change during pregnancy and does not require a referral to a dermatologist, an increase in vitamin D intake, or suspicion of an allergy to skin care products.
4. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?
- A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
- B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
- C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
- D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.
5. During an assessment of a client in labor who received epidural anesthesia, which finding should the nurse identify as a complication of the epidural block?
- A. Vomiting
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypotension is a common complication of epidural anesthesia due to the vasodilation effect of the medication. Epidural anesthesia can lead to vasodilation, causing a decrease in blood pressure. This hypotension may result in decreased perfusion to vital organs and compromise maternal and fetal well-being. Tachycardia is less likely as a complication of epidural anesthesia since it tends to have a vasodilatory effect. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with other forms of anesthesia, such as general anesthesia, rather than epidural anesthesia. Vomiting is not typically a direct complication of epidural anesthesia and is more commonly seen with other factors such as pain or medications given during labor.
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