Nursing Elites

1. A client who is postpartum has a slightly boggy and displaced fundus to the right. Which of the following actions should the nurse take based on these findings?

• A. Encourage the client to perform Kegel exercises.
• B. Encourage the client to move to the left lateral position.
• C. Ask the client to rate her pain.
• D. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A displaced and boggy fundus in a postpartum client typically indicates a full bladder, which can impede uterine contractions and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void helps ensure the bladder is empty, aiding the fundus to contract and reducing the risk of complications. Encouraging Kegel exercises, changing positions, or assessing pain would not directly address the issue of the boggy fundus caused by a full bladder.

2. A healthcare professional is assisting with the care for a client who is experiencing a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following findings is expected with this condition?

• A. No alteration in menses
• B. Transvaginal ultrasound indicating a fetus in the uterus
• C. Blood progesterone greater than the expected reference range
• D. Report of severe shoulder pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe shoulder pain is a common finding in clients with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy due to referred pain from diaphragmatic irritation caused by blood in the abdominal cavity. This pain is known as Kehr's sign and is often experienced in the shoulder due to irritation of the phrenic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A ruptured ectopic pregnancy typically presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of shock, rather than no alteration in menses, a fetus in the uterus, or elevated blood progesterone levels.

3. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. The client states, 'I missed one menstrual cycle and cannot be pregnant because I have an intrauterine device.' The nurse should suspect which of the following?

• A. Missed abortion
• B. Ectopic pregnancy
• C. Severe preeclampsia
• D. Hydatidiform mole

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ectopic pregnancy should be suspected in clients with abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding, especially if they have an intrauterine device (IUD). In this case, the client's symptoms are classic for ectopic pregnancy, where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. Missed abortion (choice A) refers to a nonviable embryo or fetus in the uterus, which is not consistent with the client's presentation. Severe preeclampsia (choice C) is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, not the symptoms described. Hydatidiform mole (choice D) presents with vaginal bleeding but typically lacks abdominal pain and is not related to the presence of an IUD.

4. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?

• A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
• B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
• C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
• D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.

5. When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring with a newly licensed nurse, which statement should a nurse include?

• A. Count the fetal heart rate for 15 seconds to determine the baseline.
• B. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor.
• C. Count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes.
• D. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring, it is crucial to count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes. This practice allows for the assessment of variations in the fetal heart rate pattern associated with uterine contractions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate after contractions provides valuable insights into fetal well-being and potential distress. Option A is incorrect because determining the baseline involves assessing the fetal heart rate over a more extended period. Option B is incorrect as auscultation every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor is too frequent for intermittent monitoring. Option D is incorrect as auscultating the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor is too infrequent for proper monitoring of fetal well-being.

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