a nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation the client reports continued nausea vomiting and scant prune co
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ATI LPN

Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam

1. A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of continued nausea, vomiting, scant prune-colored discharge, and a fundal height larger than expected at 4 months of gestation suggest a possible hydatidiform mole. Hyperemesis gravidarum (choice A) typically presents with severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances. Threatened abortion (choice B) is characterized by vaginal bleeding with or without cramping but does not typically present with prune-colored discharge. Preterm labor (choice D) manifests with regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes and can occur later in pregnancy.

2. A nurse is assisting the nurse manager with an educational session about ways to prevent TORCH infections during pregnancy with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements by one of the session participants indicates understanding?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. To prevent TORCH infections during pregnancy, it is essential for clients to avoid consuming undercooked meat, as it can be a potential source of toxoplasmosis. This infection, along with others in the TORCH group, can pose risks to the fetus, making it crucial for pregnant individuals to follow proper food safety practices. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because seeking an immunization against rubella, receiving prophylactic treatment for cytomegalovirus, and avoiding crowded places are not directly related to preventing TORCH infections through food safety measures.

3. A client is in labor, and a nurse observes late decelerations on the electronic fetal monitor. What should the nurse identify as the first action that the registered nurse should take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The initial action should be to assist the client into the left-lateral position to optimize maternal blood flow and oxygenation to the fetus, thereby improving uteroplacental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. This position helps reduce pressure on the vena cava, enhancing blood return to the heart and improving circulation to the placenta. Applying a fetal scalp electrode (Choice B) is not the first action indicated for late decelerations. Inserting an IV catheter (Choice C) and performing a vaginal exam (Choice D) are not primary interventions for addressing late decelerations related to uteroplacental insufficiency.

4. A nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who is in an incubator to maintain a neutral thermal environment. The father of the newborn asks the nurse why this is necessary. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because preterm newborns have immature temperature regulation mechanisms, making it difficult for them to maintain their body temperature. An incubator helps maintain a stable thermal environment. Choice A is incorrect as the body surface area is not the primary reason for needing an incubator. Choice B is incorrect because brown fat in preterm newborns actually helps generate heat. Choice D is incorrect as the purpose of the incubator is not to dry sweat but to regulate the newborn's temperature.

5. A client in labor is having contractions 4 minutes apart. Which of the following patterns should the nurse expect on the fetal monitoring tracing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When contractions are 4 minutes apart, it means there are 4 minutes from the start of one contraction to the start of the next. If each contraction lasts 60 seconds, there will be a 3-minute rest period between contractions. This allows for adequate uterine relaxation and recovery before the next contraction begins. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests a 4-minute rest between contractions, which is not accurate. Choice B is incorrect as contractions lasting 4 minutes continuously without rest would be concerning. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests 45-second contractions instead of 60-second contractions.

Similar Questions

While observing the electronic fetal heart rate monitor tracing for a client at 40 weeks of gestation in labor, a nurse should suspect a problem with the umbilical cord when she observes which of the following patterns?
A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?
A client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation is receiving continuous IV oxytocin and has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing. What action should the nurse take?
A charge nurse on the postpartum unit is observing a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to administer pain medication to a client. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse uses which of the following secondary identifiers to identify the client?
A client at 28 weeks of gestation received terbutaline. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

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