a nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation the client reports continued nausea vomiting and scant prune co
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ATI LPN

Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam

1. A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of continued nausea, vomiting, scant prune-colored discharge, and a fundal height larger than expected at 4 months of gestation suggest a possible hydatidiform mole. Hyperemesis gravidarum (choice A) typically presents with severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances. Threatened abortion (choice B) is characterized by vaginal bleeding with or without cramping but does not typically present with prune-colored discharge. Preterm labor (choice D) manifests with regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes and can occur later in pregnancy.

2. A newborn was delivered vaginally and experienced a tight nuchal cord. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a newborn experiences a tight nuchal cord during delivery, it can lead to petechiae, which are small red or purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the skin. These petechiae may appear over the head, face, and neck due to the pressure of the cord. It is essential for the nurse to recognize this as a possible consequence and monitor the newborn for any signs of complications. Bruising over the buttocks (Choice A) is not typically associated with a tight nuchal cord. Hard nodules on the roof of the mouth (Choice B) are more indicative of Epstein pearls or Bohn's nodules, which are considered normal findings in newborns. Bilateral periauricular papillomas (Choice D) are not related to a tight nuchal cord but are seen in congenital syphilis.

3. A client is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is characterized by an autoimmune response that leads to a decreased platelet count. This condition increases the risk of bleeding due to the low platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in managing ITP, as it helps determine the risk of bleeding and guides treatment decisions. Therefore, the correct finding to expect in a client with ITP is a decreased platelet count. Choice B, an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), is not typically associated with ITP. Choice C, decreased megakaryocytes, may be seen in conditions like aplastic anemia but are not a typical finding in ITP. Choice D, an increased white blood cell count (WBC), is not a characteristic feature of ITP.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the provider recognize as a clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect characterized by a narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities and decreased blood pressure in the lower extremities due to decreased blood flow beyond the narrowing. Choice B is incorrect because coarctation of the aorta does not lead to increased blood pressure in the legs. Choice C is incorrect because increased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not a typical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice D is incorrect because decreased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not characteristic of coarctation of the aorta.

5. A client has a new prescription for chlamydia. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct treatment for chlamydia is a one-time dose of azithromycin. It is crucial for the client to understand the correct medication regimen for effective treatment. Choice B is incorrect because treatment is necessary for the partner even if asymptomatic. Choice C is incorrect because sexual relations should be avoided until treatment is completed. Choice D is incorrect as retesting should generally occur 3 months after treatment.

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