Nursing Elites

1. A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?

• A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
• B. Threatened abortion
• C. Hydatidiform mole
• D. Preterm labor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of continued nausea, vomiting, scant prune-colored discharge, and a fundal height larger than expected at 4 months of gestation suggest a possible hydatidiform mole. Hyperemesis gravidarum (choice A) typically presents with severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances. Threatened abortion (choice B) is characterized by vaginal bleeding with or without cramping but does not typically present with prune-colored discharge. Preterm labor (choice D) manifests with regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes and can occur later in pregnancy.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer prophylactic eye ointment to a newborn to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering?

• A. Ofloxacin
• B. Nystatin
• C. Erythromycin
• D. Ceftriaxone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythromycin eye ointment is the medication of choice for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum, an eye infection in newborns caused by exposure to gonorrhea or chlamydia during birth. Erythromycin helps prevent the transmission of these bacteria from the mother to the baby during delivery, protecting the newborn's eyes from potential infection. Ofloxacin, Nystatin, and Ceftriaxone are not indicated for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum. Ofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic used for treating eye infections in adults, Nystatin is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, and Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin antibiotic used for various bacterial infections, but not for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum.

3. A woman at 38 weeks of gestation is admitted in early labor with ruptured membranes. The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 38.9°C (102°F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

• A. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hours.
• B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly.
• C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid.
• D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated temperature in a woman with ruptured membranes may indicate infection. Assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid can help determine if chorioamnionitis (an infection of the amniotic fluid) is present. This assessment is crucial to guide further interventions and management of the client's condition. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Rechecking the client's temperature in 4 hours does not address the immediate concern of potential infection. Administering glucocorticoids intramuscularly is not indicated based solely on an elevated temperature. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is premature and not supported by the information provided.

4. When reinforcing teaching with new parents on bathing a newborn, a nurse observes a bluish-brown marking across the newborn's lower back. Which of the following statements should the nurse make concerning the variation?

• A. This is more commonly seen in newborns who have dark skin.
• B. This is a finding indicating hyperbilirubinemia.
• C. This is a forceps mark from an operative delivery.
• D. This is related to prolonged birth or trauma during delivery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A bluish-brown marking across the lower back is more commonly seen in newborns with dark skin. These markings are known as Mongolian spots and are benign. They are not related to hyperbilirubinemia, forceps marks, or trauma during delivery. Choice B is incorrect because hyperbilirubinemia presents as jaundice, not as a bluish-brown marking. Choice C is incorrect because forceps marks would have a different appearance and location. Choice D is incorrect as Mongolian spots are not related to prolonged birth or trauma during delivery.

5. A client is being cared for 2 hours after a spontaneous vaginal birth and has saturated two perineal pads with blood in a 30-minute period. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention at this time?

• A. Palpate the client's uterine fundus.
• B. Assist the client to a bedpan to urinate.
• C. Prepare to administer oxytocic medication.
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to palpate the client's uterine fundus. A boggy uterus that is not well contracted may indicate uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. Palpating the fundus and massaging it if it is boggy helps to promote contractions and reduce bleeding, making it the most critical intervention to address the potential underlying issue. Assisting the client to a bedpan to urinate, preparing to administer oxytocic medication, or increasing the client's fluid intake are not the immediate priorities in this scenario compared to assessing and addressing the uterine fundus status.

Similar Questions