Nursing Elites

1. A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?

• A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
• B. Threatened abortion
• C. Hydatidiform mole
• D. Preterm labor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of continued nausea, vomiting, scant prune-colored discharge, and a fundal height larger than expected at 4 months of gestation suggest a possible hydatidiform mole. Hyperemesis gravidarum (choice A) typically presents with severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances. Threatened abortion (choice B) is characterized by vaginal bleeding with or without cramping but does not typically present with prune-colored discharge. Preterm labor (choice D) manifests with regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes and can occur later in pregnancy.

2. A nurse on a labor unit is admitting a client who reports painful contractions. The nurse determines that the contractions have a duration of 1 minute and a frequency of 3 minutes. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: fetal heart rate 130/min, maternal heart rate 128/min, and maternal blood pressure 92/54 mm Hg. Which of the following is the priority action for the nurse to take?

• A. Notify the provider of the findings.
• B. Position the client with one hip elevated.
• C. Ask the client if she needs pain medication.
• D. Have the client void.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse in this situation is to position the client with one hip elevated. This position can help improve blood flow to the placenta and stabilize blood pressure, which is crucial for both the client and the fetus during labor. It can also help optimize fetal oxygenation by improving circulation. Notifying the provider of the findings may be necessary, but ensuring proper positioning of the client takes precedence to address the immediate physiological needs. Asking the client about pain medication or having the client void are important interventions but are not the priority in this scenario where the client is experiencing painful contractions and has low blood pressure.

3. A caregiver is learning about newborn safety. Which of the following statements by a parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will dress my baby in flame-retardant clothing.
• B. I will ensure a bib on my baby at night to keep her clothing dry.
• C. I will warm my baby's formula using the lowest setting in the microwave.
• D. I will cover the crib mattress with plastic to prevent staining.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Dressing a baby in flame-retardant clothing is crucial to prevent injuries, especially in case of accidental exposure to fire sources. This safety measure can provide an added layer of protection for the newborn. The other options do not directly address newborn safety concerns or best practices. Option B focuses on keeping clothing dry, which is not a primary safety concern. Option C poses a risk of overheating the formula, which can be dangerous for the baby. Option D, covering the crib mattress with plastic, may pose a suffocation hazard to the baby.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr IV to a client who is in preterm labor. Available is 20 g of magnesium sulfate in 500 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W). How many mL/hr should the IV infusion pump be set to administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 60
• B. 30
• C. 50
• D. 80

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To administer magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr IV, the healthcare professional should set the IV infusion pump to administer 50 mL/hr. The calculation is as follows: 20 g / 500 mL = 2 g / X mL, X = 50 mL/hr. Choice A (60 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not match the calculated rate. Choice B (30 mL/hr) is incorrect as it is half of the calculated rate. Choice D (80 mL/hr) is incorrect as it is higher than the calculated rate.

5. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
• B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
• D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

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