Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately following birth. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Instill erythromycin ophthalmic ointment
• B. Place identification bracelets on the newborn
• C. Weigh the newborn
• D. Dry the newborn

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Drying the newborn is the first priority to prevent heat loss, which can occur rapidly in newborns due to their large surface area and lack of body fat. This helps maintain the newborn's body temperature and prevent hypothermia. Instilling erythromycin ophthalmic ointment, placing identification bracelets, and weighing the newborn can be important steps but should come after ensuring the newborn is dried to maintain their body temperature.

2. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is being taught about the signs of preterm labor. Which of the following should the nurse include?

• A. Sudden weight loss
• B. Regular contractions
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Vaginal spotting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regular contractions. Regular contractions before 37 weeks of gestation are a significant sign of preterm labor. It is essential for clients to be aware of this symptom and report it promptly to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sudden weight loss, shortness of breath, and vaginal spotting are not typical signs of preterm labor. Teaching clients about the specific signs of preterm labor can help in early detection and intervention, ultimately improving outcomes for both the client and the baby.

3. A nurse is caring for a client in preterm labor who is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which of the following is an indication of magnesium toxicity?

• A. Blood glucose of 160 mg/dL
• B. Urine output of 20 mL/hour
• C. Systolic BP of 140 mm Hg
• D. Respiratory rate of 20/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine output of 20 mL/hour. Urine output below 30 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity due to the risk of accumulation in the body. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, systolic blood pressure, and normal respiratory rate are not specific signs of magnesium toxicity.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

5. A client is receiving ferrous sulfate. Which of the following should be monitored?

• A. Serum potassium levels
• B. Hemoglobin levels
• C. Liver function tests
• D. Blood glucose levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin levels. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia by increasing the body's iron stores. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial as it reflects the effectiveness of the treatment in improving the client's anemia. Serum potassium levels (Choice A) are typically not directly affected by ferrous sulfate. Liver function tests (Choice C) and blood glucose levels (Choice D) are not routinely monitored when a client is receiving ferrous sulfate unless there are specific indications or pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.

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