Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following should the nurse assess for?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Chest pain
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD, the nurse should assess for the use of accessory muscles. This is important because COPD can lead to increased work of breathing, causing the client to engage accessory muscles to help with respiration. Assessing for the use of accessory muscles provides crucial information about the client's respiratory effort. Respiratory rate (Choice A) is a standard assessment parameter but may not specifically indicate the severity of COPD. Chest pain (Choice B) is not typically associated with COPD unless there are complicating factors. Oxygen saturation (Choice D) is essential to monitor in COPD clients, but assessing for the use of accessory muscles takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status in COPD.

2. A charge nurse is evaluating the time management skills of a newly licensed nurse. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse does which of the following?

• A. Re-evaluates priorities halfway through the shift
• B. Delegates changing a sterile dressing to a licensed practical nurse
• C. Groups activities for the same client
• D. Works on several tasks simultaneously

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Working on several tasks simultaneously may lead to errors due to divided attention and lack of focus. It is important for nurses to prioritize tasks and complete them one at a time to ensure thoroughness and accuracy. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate time management strategies. Re-evaluating priorities, delegating tasks appropriately, and grouping activities for the same client can help improve efficiency and quality of care.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. The healthcare provider should identify what as a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

• A. Advanced age
• B. Urinary incontinence
• C. Regular skin assessments
• D. Adequate hydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a significant risk factor for skin breakdown and pressure injuries. It can lead to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants, increasing the susceptibility to pressure injuries. Advanced age (Choice A) is a risk factor due to changes in skin integrity and decreased tissue viability, but it is not as direct a risk factor as urinary incontinence. Regular skin assessments (Choice C) are important for early detection and prevention but are not a risk factor themselves. Adequate hydration (Choice D) is essential for overall skin health but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries.

4. A nurse is reviewing psychosocial stages of development for a school-age child. What would be an expected behavioral finding for this child?

• A. Personalize values and beliefs and base reasoning on ethical fairness principles.
• B. Develop a sense of personal identity that is influenced by family expectations.
• C. Develop a sense of industry through advances in learning.
• D. Take on new experiences and when unable to accomplish tasks, may feel guilty.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. School-age children (6-12 years) are in Erikson's stage of industry vs. inferiority. During this stage, they strive to develop a sense of industry through learning and socialization. They seek to excel in various areas, such as schoolwork or activities, and look for approval from peers and adults. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because personalizing values and beliefs, developing personal identity influenced by family expectations, and feeling guilty for inability to accomplish tasks are not typical behavioral findings for a school-age child in the context of psychosocial development.

5. A client has been prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client to monitor for signs of toxicity?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Increased urination
• C. Tremors
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tremors. Lithium toxicity can present with symptoms such as tremors, nausea, and blurred vision. Tremors are a common early sign of lithium toxicity and should be monitored closely. While nausea and vomiting can also occur with lithium toxicity, tremors are more specific to lithium toxicity. Increased urination is not typically associated with lithium toxicity, and blurred vision is less common compared to tremors in this context.

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