ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse is providing education to a client in the first trimester of pregnancy. What information should the nurse include regarding the cause of indigestion and heartburn?
- A. Estrogen causes increased appetite
- B. Progesterone causes relaxation of the cardiac sphincter allowing acid to reflux
- C. HCG hormone leads to increased gastric acidity
- D. The uterus compresses the stomach early in pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Progesterone causes relaxation of the smooth muscles in the body, including the cardiac sphincter. This relaxation allows stomach acid to reflux into the esophagus, leading to heartburn during pregnancy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the physiological mechanism that causes heartburn during pregnancy. Estrogen causing increased appetite (Choice A) is not directly linked to heartburn. HCG hormone increasing gastric acidity (Choice C) is not the primary cause of heartburn during pregnancy. The uterus compressing the stomach early in pregnancy (Choice D) may contribute to feelings of fullness or bloating but is not the main cause of heartburn.
2. A public health nurse is developing a list of interventions to address the 3 core functions of public health. What interventions should the nurse include as a part of the assurance function?
- A. Collect data on health trends in the community.
- B. Organize an immunization clinic for at-risk members of the community.
- C. Develop policies to address health disparities.
- D. Conduct research on communicable diseases in the area.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Organize an immunization clinic for at-risk members of the community.' The assurance function of public health involves ensuring that essential public health services, like immunizations, are provided to meet public health goals. Choice A, collecting data on health trends, is more aligned with the assessment function of public health. Choice C, developing policies to address health disparities, pertains to the policy development function. Choice D, conducting research on communicable diseases, is related to the research function rather than the assurance function.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of clopidogrel. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It is an anticoagulant
- B. Monitor for signs of bleeding
- C. It can be stopped abruptly
- D. Avoid foods rich in vitamin K
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, not an anticoagulant. Clients taking clopidogrel should be monitored for signs of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. Choice A is incorrect because clopidogrel is not an anticoagulant. Choice C is incorrect as clopidogrel should not be stopped abruptly but as directed by a healthcare provider. Choice D is irrelevant since foods rich in vitamin K are more of a concern with anticoagulant medications like warfarin, not antiplatelet medications like clopidogrel.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor. The nurse notes early decelerations in the FHR on the fetal monitor tracing. The nurse should identify that which of the following conditions causes early decelerations in the FHR?
- A. Fetal hypoxemia
- B. Cord compression
- C. Uteroplacental insufficiency
- D. Head compression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Early decelerations are caused by head compression during contractions, which is a normal response as the fetal head is being compressed during uterine contractions. This usually indicates that the fetus is descending into the birth canal. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Fetal hypoxemia, cord compression, and uteroplacental insufficiency typically present with variable or late decelerations on the fetal heart rate tracing, not early decelerations.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?
- A. Confusion
- B. Thirst
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Shakiness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.
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