Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse on a med-surg unit is preparing to delegate tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). What task should the charge nurse delegate to the LPN?

• A. Initiate a care plan.
• B. Perform a complex wound dressing change.
• C. Administer an oral antibiotic to a patient.
• D. Complete an initial assessment.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct task that the charge nurse should delegate to the LPN is to administer an oral antibiotic to a patient. LPNs are trained and permitted to administer medications orally under the supervision of a registered nurse. Initiating a care plan (Choice A) and completing an initial assessment (Choice D) are tasks that typically require higher-level nursing education and critical thinking skills, which are more suitable for registered nurses. Performing a complex wound dressing change (Choice B) involves specialized skills and assessment that are often within the scope of practice of registered nurses or wound care specialists.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The client reports tingling in the fingers and around the mouth. The nurse should anticipate which of the following interventions?

• A. Administer calcium gluconate
• B. Provide a high-protein diet
• C. Administer levothyroxine
• D. Apply a warm compress to the client's neck

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tingling in the fingers and around the mouth is a sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur after thyroid surgery due to accidental damage to the parathyroid glands. Hypocalcemia is common after thyroidectomy due to potential parathyroid damage. Calcium gluconate is the appropriate intervention to treat hypocalcemia. Providing a high-protein diet or administering levothyroxine are not indicated for hypocalcemia. Applying a warm compress to the client's neck would not address the underlying issue of hypocalcemia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed digoxin. Which of the following should alert the nurse to possible digitalis toxicity?

• A. Anorexia and weakness
• B. Hyperactivity and hunger
• C. Tachycardia and increased urination
• D. Polyphagia and polydipsia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Digitalis toxicity is a serious complication of digoxin therapy, particularly in older adults. Early symptoms include anorexia, nausea, and generalized weakness. Anorexia and weakness are common indicators of digitalis toxicity. Hyperactivity, hunger, tachycardia, increased urination, polyphagia, and polydipsia are not typical signs of digitalis toxicity. Monitoring for anorexia and weakness can help detect toxicity early and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias.

4. What is the name of a legal document that instructs health care providers and family members about what life-sustaining treatment an individual wants if they are unable to make decisions?

• A. Do Not Resuscitate
• B. Informed consent
• C. Living will
• D. Durable power of attorney for health care

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Living will.' A living will is a legal document that outlines an individual's preferences for life-sustaining medical treatment if they become unable to make decisions. Choice A, 'Do Not Resuscitate,' specifically refers to a directive that instructs healthcare providers not to perform CPR. Choice B, 'Informed consent,' pertains to a patient's right to be informed about and consent to medical treatment. Choice D, 'Durable power of attorney for health care,' involves appointing someone to make healthcare decisions on behalf of an individual when they are unable to do so.

5. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

• A. 4
• B. 7 (comatose)
• C. 9
• D. 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

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