ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a group of clients in a long-term care facility. Which of the following situations should the nurse recognize as a safety hazard?
- A. A client’s wrist restraints tied to the bed rails
- B. A client’s bedside table placed across the foot of the bed
- C. A meal tray left at the bedside from breakfast
- D. A call light extension cord pinned to the bedspread
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tying wrist restraints to the bed rails is a safety hazard because if the bed rails are lowered, the restraints can tighten and cause injury or asphyxiation. Choice B, placing a bedside table across the foot of the bed, may not be ideal for convenience but does not pose a direct safety hazard. Choice C, leaving a meal tray at the bedside from breakfast, is more of an infection control issue than an immediate safety hazard. Choice D, having a call light extension cord pinned to the bedspread, is also not a direct safety hazard unless it poses a risk of entanglement or tripping, which is not indicated in the scenario.
2. A client scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. “I should not wash my hair before the procedure.”
- B. “I will be given a sedative 1 hour before the procedure.”
- C. “I should refrain from eating before the procedure.”
- D. “I will be exposed to flashes of light during the procedure.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electroencephalogram (EEG), flashes of light or patterns are often used to stimulate the brain and provoke responses, helping to assess brain activity and the potential for seizures. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because washing the hair, receiving a sedative, and refraining from eating are not usually related to EEG procedures and do not reflect understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of alendronate. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
- A. Take it with food
- B. Sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it
- C. It can be taken at bedtime
- D. It is safe to take with antacids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it.' Alendronate can cause esophageal irritation and to reduce the risk of this side effect, clients should be instructed to sit upright for at least 30 minutes after administration. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, usually in the morning, at least 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or medication of the day. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken at bedtime, as the client should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of alendronate, so they should not be taken together.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication to this vaccine?
- A. The possibility of pregnancy within 4 weeks
- B. Client allergy to strawberry
- C. Client history of genital herpes
- D. The possibility of overseas travel in the next month
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The MMR vaccine is contraindicated in pregnant women due to the risk of fetal harm. It is recommended that women avoid becoming pregnant for at least 4 weeks after receiving the vaccine. Choice B, client allergy to strawberry, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice C, client history of genital herpes, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice D, the possibility of overseas travel in the next month, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine.
5. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?
- A. Increased blood pressure
- B. Pulse deficit
- C. Normal heart rate
- D. Elevated oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access