ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
- B. Apply warm, moist compresses to the affected leg.
- C. Massage the affected leg.
- D. Place the client in a supine position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to apply warm, moist compresses to the affected leg. This helps alleviate pain and improve circulation in the affected area, aiding in the treatment of DVT. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently (Choice A) is contraindicated as it can dislodge the clot and lead to complications. Massaging the affected leg (Choice C) is also contraindicated as it can dislodge the clot and potentially cause an embolism. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for DVT treatment; elevation of the affected leg is preferred over placing the client completely supine.
2. A client with a history of urinary tract infections (UTIs) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent future infections?
- A. Wipe from front to back after urination
- B. Drink 2-3 liters of water per day
- C. Avoid holding urine for long periods
- D. Wear loose-fitting underwear
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to drink 2-3 liters of water per day. Adequate hydration helps flush bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of UTIs. Choice A is incorrect because wiping from front to back is the appropriate technique to prevent the spread of bacteria from the rectal area to the urethra. Choice C is incorrect as holding urine for long periods can contribute to UTIs by allowing bacteria to grow in the bladder. Choice D is incorrect as wearing loose-fitting underwear is recommended to allow air circulation and prevent moisture buildup, reducing the risk of UTIs.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Feelings of dread
- B. Rapid speech
- C. Purposeless activity
- D. Heightened perceptual field
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In mild anxiety, the client is expected to have a heightened perceptual field. This means that their perception is increased, enhancing their awareness and ability to concentrate. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more common in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice B) and purposeless activity (Choice C) are more indicative of moderate to severe anxiety where the individual may exhibit signs of agitation and restlessness.
4. While caring for a client receiving oxytocin for labor augmentation, the nurse notes contractions occurring every 45 seconds and lasting 90 seconds. What should the nurse do?
- A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
- B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
- C. Apply an internal fetal monitor
- D. Administer an analgesic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and complications. By stopping the oxytocin, the nurse can help regulate contractions and prevent harm to the fetus. Increasing the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the issue by further intensifying contractions. Applying an internal fetal monitor may be necessary for closer monitoring but is not the immediate action required. Administering an analgesic is not appropriate in this scenario as the primary concern is addressing the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin.
5. A nurse is caring for a client in preterm labor who is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which of the following client findings indicates medication toxicity?
- A. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL
- B. Urine output of 20 mL per hour
- C. Systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg
- D. BUN 20 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A urine output of 20 mL per hour is low and indicates renal insufficiency, a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity. The medication is excreted by the kidneys, so toxicity can occur if renal function declines. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL is within normal range and not indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity. A systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg is elevated but not specifically related to magnesium sulfate toxicity. A BUN level of 20 mg/dL is also within normal limits and not a sign of medication toxicity.
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