Nursing Elites

1. A 50-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to his back, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol use. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum amylase and lipase. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Acute cholecystitis
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Acute pancreatitis
• D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's history of heavy alcohol use, severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, nausea, vomiting, and elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are classic signs of acute pancreatitis. Alcohol consumption is a common predisposing factor for pancreatitis, leading to inflammation of the pancreas. The clinical presentation, along with the laboratory findings, strongly support the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis in this patient.

2. A 40-year-old woman presents with a history of chronic constipation, bloating, and abdominal pain. She notes that the pain is relieved with defecation. She denies any weight loss, blood in her stools, or nocturnal symptoms. Physical examination and routine blood tests are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Inflammatory bowel disease
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Celiac disease
• D. Lactose intolerance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chronic constipation, bloating, abdominal pain relieved with defecation, absence of weight loss, blood in stools, or nocturnal symptoms, along with normal physical examination and routine blood tests, are indicative of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). IBS is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by abdominal pain or discomfort and altered bowel habits in the absence of any organic cause. It is a diagnosis of exclusion made based on symptom criteria, and the provided clinical scenario aligns with the typical presentation of IBS.

3. Which client's laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse?

• A. A client with GI bleeding who is receiving a blood transfusion and has a hemoglobin of 7 grams.
• B. A client with pancreatitis who has a fasting glucose of 190 mg/dl today and had 160 mg/dl yesterday.
• C. A client with hepatitis who is jaundiced and has a bilirubin level that is 4 times the normal value.
• D. A client with cancer who has an absolute neutrophil count < 500 today and had 2,000 yesterday.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sudden drop in neutrophil count to below 500 indicates severe neutropenia, putting the client at high risk for infections. Neutrophils are essential for fighting off infections, and a significant decrease in their count can compromise the client's immune response. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent the development of serious infections in the client with neutropenia.

4. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing montelukast?

• A. Relieve acute bronchospasm
• B. Prevent asthma attacks
• C. Thin respiratory secretions
• D. Suppress cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Montelukast, a leukotriene receptor antagonist, is primarily prescribed to prevent asthma attacks. It works by reducing inflammation and bronchoconstriction in the airways, thereby helping to control asthma symptoms and prevent exacerbations.

5. What is the primary action of digoxin when prescribed to a patient with heart failure?

• A. Increase heart rate
• B. Decrease cardiac output
• C. Strengthen cardiac contractions
• D. Lower blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Digoxin, when prescribed to a patient with heart failure, primarily acts by strengthening cardiac contractions. This leads to an improvement in cardiac output, making it an essential medication in managing heart failure. By enhancing the force of contractions, digoxin helps the heart pump more effectively and efficiently, leading to better circulation and symptom control in patients with compromised cardiac function.

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