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1. A 50-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to his back, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol use. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum amylase and lipase. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Acute cholecystitis
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Acute pancreatitis
- D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient's history of heavy alcohol use, severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, nausea, vomiting, and elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are classic signs of acute pancreatitis. Alcohol consumption is a common predisposing factor for pancreatitis, leading to inflammation of the pancreas. The clinical presentation, along with the laboratory findings, strongly support the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis in this patient.
2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- C. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
- D. Decrease your intake of high-sodium foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Regular monitoring of blood pressure is crucial for individuals with hypertension to assess the effectiveness of the prescribed medication and to ensure blood pressure is within the target range. This helps in managing hypertension and preventing complications associated with high blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while taking the medication in the morning may be recommended for some drugs, it is not the key instruction for hydrochlorothiazide. Avoiding foods high in potassium and decreasing high-sodium foods are important dietary considerations for certain conditions, but they are not the immediate focus when starting hydrochlorothiazide.
3. Why is morphine administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI)?
- A. To reduce pain.
- B. To decrease anxiety.
- C. To reduce cardiac workload.
- D. To increase respiratory rate.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Morphine is administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) primarily to reduce cardiac workload. By reducing preload and afterload, morphine helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle. This decrease in workload on the heart can alleviate symptoms and reduce strain on the heart muscle during an MI. Choices A and B are incorrect because the primary goal of administering morphine in this context is not pain relief or anxiety reduction. Choice D is incorrect as morphine does not aim to increase respiratory rate but rather to address the cardiac workload.
4. While assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse notes her deep tendon reflexes are 1+, respiratory rate is 12 breaths/minute, urinary output is 90 ml in 4 hours, and magnesium sulfate level is 9 mg/dl. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these findings?
- A. Continue the magnesium sulfate infusion as prescribed.
- B. Decrease the magnesium sulfate infusion by one-half.
- C. Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately.
- D. Administer calcium gluconate immediately.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately in a client with preeclampsia exhibiting diminished reflexes, respiratory depression, and low urinary output, which indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. This action is crucial to prevent further complications and adverse effects on the client.
5. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Reduce mucus production
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Suppress cough
- D. Thin respiratory secretions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tiotropium is a long-acting bronchodilator used to relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It works by relaxing the muscles around the airways, leading to bronchodilation and improved breathing, making it an essential treatment in managing COPD symptoms.
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