Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?

• A. With meals
• B. At bedtime
• C. Before meals
• D. After meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole is best taken before meals for optimal effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and promoting ulcer healing. Taking it before meals allows the medication to act on the proton pumps before food intake triggers acid production, thereby maximizing its therapeutic benefits. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals, at bedtime, or after meals may not align with its mechanism of action, potentially reducing its effectiveness in managing peptic ulcer disease.

2. What dietary advice should the nurse provide to help reduce the occurrence of hot flashes in a post-menopausal client?

• A. Increase intake of spicy foods.
• B. Limit caffeine and alcohol consumption.
• C. Consume a high-protein diet.
• D. Eat more dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting caffeine and alcohol consumption is recommended to help reduce the frequency of hot flashes in post-menopausal individuals. Caffeine and alcohol can trigger hot flashes and worsen their occurrence. Encouraging the client to reduce these stimulants in their diet may help alleviate hot flashes and improve their quality of life.

3. Which regimen is most effective for treating H. pylori infection?

• A. Metronidazole, bismuth subsalicylate, amoxicillin for 14 days
• B. Clarithromycin and omeprazole for 14 days
• C. Metronidazole, lansoprazole, and clarithromycin for 14 days
• D. Metronidazole, clarithromycin, and omeprazole for 7 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regimen C, which consists of metronidazole, lansoprazole, and clarithromycin for 14 days, is recommended by the FDA as an effective treatment for H. pylori infection. This regimen has been shown to have a high eradication rate and is a standard recommendation in clinical practice guidelines for the management of H. pylori-related conditions.

4. The patient has a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL. Which nursing action should the nurse include on the care plan?

• A. Maintain the patient on bed rest.
• B. Auscultate lung sounds every 4 hours.
• C. Monitor for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs.
• D. Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include on the care plan for a patient with a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL is to encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day. This is essential to decrease the risk for renal calculi associated with hypercalcemia. While bed rest is not necessary, ambulation is encouraged to help decrease the loss of calcium from the bone. Monitoring for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs is more relevant when hypocalcemia is suspected. Auscultating lung sounds every shift is a routine assessment, not required every 4 hours unless there is a specific respiratory concern.

5. The nurse is providing an educational workshop about coronary artery disease (CAD) and its risk factors. The nurse explains to participants that CAD has many risk factors, some that can be controlled and some that cannot. What risk factors should the nurse list that can be controlled or modified?

• A. Gender, obesity, family history, and smoking
• B. Inactivity, stress, gender, and smoking
• C. Cholesterol levels, hypertension, and smoking
• D. Stress, family history, and obesity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cholesterol levels, hypertension, and smoking are controllable risk factors for CAD. Managing these factors through lifestyle changes and medical interventions can help reduce the risk of developing coronary artery disease.

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