Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?

• A. With meals
• B. At bedtime
• C. Before meals
• D. After meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole is best taken before meals for optimal effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and promoting ulcer healing. Taking it before meals allows the medication to act on the proton pumps before food intake triggers acid production, thereby maximizing its therapeutic benefits. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals, at bedtime, or after meals may not align with its mechanism of action, potentially reducing its effectiveness in managing peptic ulcer disease.

2. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Laboratory tests reveal low TSH and high free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hypothyroidism
• B. Hyperthyroidism
• C. Thyroiditis
• D. Thyroid cancer

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The combination of low TSH and high free T4 levels is characteristic of hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is associated with symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and diarrhea, contrasting with the typical presentation of hypothyroidism. Therefore, in this case, the most likely diagnosis is hyperthyroidism.

3. A 55-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Pancreatic cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice in a 55-year-old woman, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are characteristic of primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune liver disease that typically affects middle-aged women, leading to progressive destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts.

4. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows a normal common bile duct but dilated intrahepatic bile ducts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Pancreatic cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Based on the symptoms of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of a normal common bile duct but dilated intrahepatic bile ducts, the most likely diagnosis is primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with different imaging findings, often showing strictures and beading of the bile ducts. Gallstones typically cause obstruction in the biliary system, leading to different symptoms and imaging findings. Pancreatic cancer would present with different clinical features and imaging characteristics.

5. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

• A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
• B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
• C. Prescribe celecoxib
• D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

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