a patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole when should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness
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ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet

1. A patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole is best taken before meals for optimal effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and promoting ulcer healing. Taking it before meals allows the medication to act on the proton pumps before food intake triggers acid production, thereby maximizing its therapeutic benefits. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals, at bedtime, or after meals may not align with its mechanism of action, potentially reducing its effectiveness in managing peptic ulcer disease.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is prescribed pyridostigmine (Mestinon). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with myasthenia gravis prescribed pyridostigmine (Mestinon) is to take the medication 30 minutes before meals. This timing is crucial as it helps improve muscle strength for eating and swallowing. By taking the medication before meals, the client can experience enhanced muscle function during mealtime, which is especially important for managing the symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication with food may decrease its effectiveness, avoiding dairy products is not necessary, and taking the medication at bedtime does not coincide with the optimal timing for enhancing muscle function during meals.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has just undergone a thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Numbness and tingling around the mouth can indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication after thyroidectomy. Hypocalcemia can occur due to inadvertent injury or removal of the parathyroid glands during the thyroidectomy, leading to decreased calcium levels. As a result, the client may experience symptoms such as numbness, tingling, muscle cramps, or spasms. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent severe complications like tetany or seizures. Therefore, the healthcare provider should address numbness and tingling around the mouth immediately to prevent further deterioration of calcium levels and potential serious outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with immediate post-thyroidectomy complications and can be addressed after ensuring the client's calcium levels are stable.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and subsequent cough. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can affect adherence to the medication regimen. Weight gain, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

5. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Salmeterol is classified as a long-acting beta2-agonist, which is used to prevent asthma attacks by providing extended bronchodilation. It is not typically used for immediate relief of acute bronchospasm or for suppressing cough. Additionally, salmeterol does not have the primary purpose of thinning respiratory secretions.

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