Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed prednisone. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood glucose levels
• B. Serum potassium levels
• C. Liver function tests
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prednisone is known to cause hyperglycemia by increasing blood glucose levels. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage any potential hyperglycemic effects of prednisone. While prednisone can also affect serum potassium levels and liver function, the priority monitoring parameter in this case is blood glucose levels. Monitoring heart rate is not directly associated with prednisone administration, making it a less relevant parameter to monitor in this scenario.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?

• A. 19 gtt/min
• B. 20 gtt/min
• C. 21 gtt/min
• D. 22 gtt/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calculation: 1000 mL / 480 minutes × 10 gtt/mL = 20.83, rounded to 21 gtt/min. This ensures proper IV fluid administration over the prescribed time. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects the accurate calculation based on the given parameters. Choice A is incorrect because it does not accurately calculate the infusion rate. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the precise calculation required. Choice D is incorrect as it deviates from the correct calculation.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

• A. Magnesium sulfate
• B. Oxytocin
• C. Misoprostol
• D. Nifedipine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

4. A nurse is assessing a male adolescent client who has heart failure. Based on the client’s chart, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Withhold spironolactone
• B. Administer ferrous sulfate
• C. Administer furosemide
• D. Withhold digoxin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic commonly used in heart failure to manage fluid retention, helping alleviate symptoms like edema and shortness of breath. Withholding spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, could lead to electrolyte imbalances. Administering ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia, not heart failure. Withholding digoxin, a medication used in heart failure to improve heart function, can worsen the client's condition.

5. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Place the client in a prone position
• B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
• C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
• D. Administer flumazenil

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.

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