ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed prednisone. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Blood glucose levels
- B. Serum potassium levels
- C. Liver function tests
- D. Heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prednisone is known to cause hyperglycemia by increasing blood glucose levels. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage any potential hyperglycemic effects of prednisone. While prednisone can also affect serum potassium levels and liver function, the priority monitoring parameter in this case is blood glucose levels. Monitoring heart rate is not directly associated with prednisone administration, making it a less relevant parameter to monitor in this scenario.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor. The nurse notes early decelerations in the FHR on the fetal monitor tracing. The nurse should identify that which of the following conditions causes early decelerations in the FHR?
- A. Fetal hypoxemia
- B. Cord compression
- C. Uteroplacental insufficiency
- D. Head compression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Early decelerations are caused by head compression during contractions, which is a normal response as the fetal head is being compressed during uterine contractions. This usually indicates that the fetus is descending into the birth canal. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Fetal hypoxemia, cord compression, and uteroplacental insufficiency typically present with variable or late decelerations on the fetal heart rate tracing, not early decelerations.
3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?
- A. Magnesium sulfate
- B. Oxytocin
- C. Misoprostol
- D. Nifedipine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.
4. Which of the following would increase a client's risk of ovarian cancer?
- A. History of fibroids
- B. Early menopause
- C. Endometriosis
- D. Polycystic ovary syndrome
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Endometriosis. Endometriosis is associated with an increased risk of developing ovarian cancer due to chronic inflammation and hormonal imbalances. The exact cause is not fully understood, but women with endometriosis should be monitored closely. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly linked to an increased risk of ovarian cancer. Fibroids, early menopause, and polycystic ovary syndrome do not have a known direct correlation with ovarian cancer risk.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of levetiracetam. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
- A. It can cause weight loss
- B. Monitor for mood changes
- C. It is an over-the-counter medication
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Levetiracetam can cause mood changes and behavioral side effects, so clients should be monitored for these effects. Choice A is incorrect because levetiracetam is not typically associated with weight loss. Choice C is incorrect as levetiracetam is a prescription medication, not available over the counter. Choice D is incorrect as all medications, including levetiracetam, have potential side effects.
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