Nursing Elites

1. A client reports difficulty sleeping at night, which interferes with daily functioning. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to this client?

• A. Avoid beverages containing caffeine
• B. Take a sleep medication regularly at bedtime
• C. Watch television for 30 minutes in bed to relax before falling asleep
• D. Advise the client to take several naps during the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid beverages containing caffeine. Caffeine is a stimulant that can interfere with sleep, making it difficult for the client to fall asleep at night. Taking sleep medication regularly (choice B) may not address the root cause of the sleep difficulty and can lead to dependency. Watching television in bed (choice C) can actually stimulate the brain and hinder relaxation before sleep. Advising the client to take several naps during the day (choice D) can disrupt the sleep-wake cycle further. Therefore, recommending the avoidance of caffeine-containing beverages is the most appropriate intervention to help the client improve their ability to sleep at night and function better during the day.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Use a 1-inch needle.
• B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
• D. Aspirate before injecting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, it is important to insert the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper medication delivery into the subcutaneous tissue. This angle helps prevent the medication from being injected too deeply or too superficially, ensuring optimal absorption and therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because the needle length for a subcutaneous injection is typically shorter, around ⅝ to 1 inch. Choice C is incorrect as a tuberculin syringe is not commonly used for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is also incorrect as aspiration is not necessary for subcutaneous injections since there are minimal blood vessels in the subcutaneous tissue.

3. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid drinking milk.
• B. I should avoid drinking coffee.
• C. I should avoid eating high-fiber foods.
• D. I should avoid eating low-fat foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding coffee is important in managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. Coffee is known to stimulate acid secretion in the stomach, which can exacerbate ulcer symptoms. Therefore, instructing the client to avoid drinking coffee is essential in the dietary management of peptic ulcer disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is generally allowed and can even provide a protective effect against ulcers. High-fiber foods are beneficial for digestion and do not need to be avoided unless they cause discomfort. Low-fat foods are also typically recommended for individuals with peptic ulcer disease as they are easier on the digestive system.

4. While assessing a client with fluid volume deficit, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Increased skin turgor
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic clinical manifestation of fluid volume deficit. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, resulting in decreased moisture in the mucous membranes. Bradycardia, increased skin turgor, and hypertension are not typically associated with fluid volume deficit. Bradycardia is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or increased intracranial pressure. Increased skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, not deficit. Hypertension is not a typical finding in fluid volume deficit.

5. What action is required by law when preparing to administer a controlled substance?

• A. Verify the client’s identification using two identifiers.
• B. Document the medication administration in the client’s chart immediately.
• C. Return any unused portion of the medication to the pharmacy.
• D. Have a second nurse witness the disposal of any unused portion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Having a second nurse witness the disposal of any unused portion of a controlled substance is a legal requirement to ensure proper disposal, prevent diversion, and maintain accountability. This practice helps in reducing the risk of misuse or unauthorized access to controlled substances, enhancing patient safety, and complying with legal regulations and standards.

Similar Questions