Nursing Elites

1. A client reports difficulty sleeping at night, which interferes with daily functioning. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to this client?

• A. Avoid beverages containing caffeine
• B. Take a sleep medication regularly at bedtime
• C. Watch television for 30 minutes in bed to relax before falling asleep
• D. Advise the client to take several naps during the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid beverages containing caffeine. Caffeine is a stimulant that can interfere with sleep, making it difficult for the client to fall asleep at night. Taking sleep medication regularly (choice B) may not address the root cause of the sleep difficulty and can lead to dependency. Watching television in bed (choice C) can actually stimulate the brain and hinder relaxation before sleep. Advising the client to take several naps during the day (choice D) can disrupt the sleep-wake cycle further. Therefore, recommending the avoidance of caffeine-containing beverages is the most appropriate intervention to help the client improve their ability to sleep at night and function better during the day.

2. What action is required by law when preparing to administer a controlled substance?

• A. Verify the client’s identification using two identifiers.
• B. Document the medication administration in the client’s chart immediately.
• C. Return any unused portion of the medication to the pharmacy.
• D. Have a second nurse witness the disposal of any unused portion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Having a second nurse witness the disposal of any unused portion of a controlled substance is a legal requirement to ensure proper disposal, prevent diversion, and maintain accountability. This practice helps in reducing the risk of misuse or unauthorized access to controlled substances, enhancing patient safety, and complying with legal regulations and standards.

3. A client has a new diagnosis of hyperthyroidism and is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of iodine-rich foods.
• B. You should avoid foods that contain iodine.
• C. You should increase your intake of dairy products.
• D. You should avoid foods that contain gluten.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In hyperthyroidism, it is advisable to avoid foods that contain iodine to help manage the condition and prevent complications. Excessive iodine intake can exacerbate hyperthyroidism symptoms by stimulating the thyroid gland. Therefore, the nurse should include information about avoiding iodine-rich foods in the client's dietary management teaching. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing intake of iodine-rich foods can worsen hyperthyroidism symptoms, increasing dairy products is not specific to managing hyperthyroidism, and avoiding gluten is more relevant for conditions like celiac disease, not hyperthyroidism.

4. A client with a new prescription for a dry-powder inhaler (DPI) is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will shake the inhaler before use.
• B. I will take the medication with food.
• C. I will inhale the medication quickly.
• D. I will use a spacer with the inhaler.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choosing option C, 'I will inhale the medication quickly,' demonstrates an understanding of DPI use. Inhaling the medication quickly ensures effective delivery of the dry powder to the lungs, maximizing its therapeutic effects. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as shaking the DPI, taking it with food, and using a spacer are not recommended practices for DPI administration. Shaking a DPI can cause clumping or uneven dispersion of the medication, taking it with food may not affect its efficacy but can increase the risk of side effects, and using a spacer is not necessary for DPIs which are breath-actuated and do not require coordination with inhalation through a spacer.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

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