Nursing Elites

1. A client reports difficulty sleeping at night, which interferes with daily functioning. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to this client?

• A. Avoid beverages containing caffeine
• B. Take a sleep medication regularly at bedtime
• C. Watch television for 30 minutes in bed to relax before falling asleep
• D. Advise the client to take several naps during the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid beverages containing caffeine. Caffeine is a stimulant that can interfere with sleep, making it difficult for the client to fall asleep at night. Taking sleep medication regularly (choice B) may not address the root cause of the sleep difficulty and can lead to dependency. Watching television in bed (choice C) can actually stimulate the brain and hinder relaxation before sleep. Advising the client to take several naps during the day (choice D) can disrupt the sleep-wake cycle further. Therefore, recommending the avoidance of caffeine-containing beverages is the most appropriate intervention to help the client improve their ability to sleep at night and function better during the day.

2. A client with iron-deficiency anemia is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of foods high in iron.
• B. I should decrease my intake of foods high in iron.
• C. I should increase my intake of foods high in calcium.
• D. I should decrease my intake of foods high in calcium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I should increase my intake of foods high in iron.' Iron-deficiency anemia is managed by increasing the consumption of iron-rich foods to improve iron levels in the body. Foods high in iron include red meat, poultry, fish, beans, lentils, and iron-fortified cereals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreasing intake of iron-rich foods or increasing intake of calcium-rich foods would not address the deficiency in iron levels that characterizes iron-deficiency anemia.

3. A client with cirrhosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
• B. I should decrease my intake of sodium-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In cirrhosis, decreasing the intake of sodium-rich foods is essential to manage fluid retention and symptoms. Excessive sodium intake can worsen fluid accumulation and lead to complications such as ascites. Therefore, advising the client to decrease sodium-rich foods demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management necessary for cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing sodium-rich foods can exacerbate fluid retention and complications in cirrhosis, increasing potassium-rich foods is not the primary focus of dietary management in cirrhosis, and decreasing potassium-rich foods is not a key recommendation for managing cirrhosis-related dietary issues.

4. A client with a new prescription for a dry-powder inhaler (DPI) is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will shake the inhaler before use.
• B. I will take the medication with food.
• C. I will inhale the medication quickly.
• D. I will use a spacer with the inhaler.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choosing option C, 'I will inhale the medication quickly,' demonstrates an understanding of DPI use. Inhaling the medication quickly ensures effective delivery of the dry powder to the lungs, maximizing its therapeutic effects. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as shaking the DPI, taking it with food, and using a spacer are not recommended practices for DPI administration. Shaking a DPI can cause clumping or uneven dispersion of the medication, taking it with food may not affect its efficacy but can increase the risk of side effects, and using a spacer is not necessary for DPIs which are breath-actuated and do not require coordination with inhalation through a spacer.

5. What action should the healthcare provider take for a patient with a chest tube?

• A. Strip the drainage tubing every 4 hours.
• B. Keep the drainage system below the level of the patient's chest.
• C. Clamp the chest tube when ambulating the patient.
• D. Ensure the water seal chamber is filled to the prescribed level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring the water seal chamber is filled to the prescribed level is essential for the chest tube's effective functioning. This maintains the integrity of the system, prevents air from entering the pleural space, and facilitates proper drainage. Stripping the drainage tubing, keeping the drainage system below the chest level, or clamping the chest tube during ambulation are not recommended practices and can lead to complications.

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