Nursing Elites

1. During an abdominal assessment, what is the correct sequence of steps for a healthcare provider to follow?

• A. Inspection, percussion, palpation, auscultation
• B. Percussion, auscultation, inspection, palpation
• C. Auscultation, palpation, inspection, percussion
• D. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During an abdominal assessment, the correct sequence of steps is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. This sequence is followed to prevent altering bowel sounds. Inspection allows for visual observation, followed by auscultation to listen for bowel sounds without causing disturbance, percussion to assess for tympany or dullness, and finally palpation to feel for any abnormalities or tenderness. Choice A is incorrect because palpation should come after percussion. Choice B is incorrect as auscultation should be performed after inspection. Choice C is incorrect because palpation should be the final step after percussion.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of insulin. Which of the following actions should the professional take?

• A. Use a 1-inch needle.
• B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
• D. Aspirate before injecting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle is appropriate. This angle helps ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Using a 1-inch needle is common for subcutaneous injections to reach the subcutaneous fat layer adequately. Tuberculin syringes are typically used for intradermal injections, not subcutaneous injections. Aspirating before injecting is not necessary for subcutaneous injections as it is primarily used for intramuscular injections to ensure the needle is not in a blood vessel.

3. A healthcare professional is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• B. Take aspirin for pain relief.
• C. Consume a consistent amount of green leafy vegetables.
• D. Use an electric razor when shaving.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Consuming a consistent amount of green leafy vegetables is important for clients taking warfarin as these foods contain vitamin K, which can affect the medication's effectiveness. Maintaining a consistent intake helps stabilize the International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels, which is crucial for monitoring the blood's ability to clot properly while on warfarin therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding grapefruit juice is generally recommended with certain medications due to its interaction with liver enzymes, which is not directly related to warfarin. Taking aspirin along with warfarin can increase the risk of bleeding. Using an electric razor when shaving is a safety precaution for those at risk of bleeding, but it is not directly related to the medication warfarin.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should limit my intake of protein to prevent overworking my kidneys.
• B. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of phosphorus-rich foods.
• D. I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In chronic kidney disease, limiting protein intake is crucial to prevent overworking the kidneys. Excessive protein consumption can lead to the accumulation of metabolic waste products that the kidneys struggle to process, worsening kidney function. Therefore, by recognizing the need to restrict protein intake, the client demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management required for their condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (Choice B) is not recommended in chronic kidney disease as it can lead to hyperkalemia. Similarly, increasing intake of phosphorus-rich foods (Choice C) is not advised because impaired kidneys struggle to excrete phosphorus, leading to elevated levels in the blood. Lastly, increasing intake of calcium-rich foods (Choice D) may not be necessary unless there is a specific deficiency or requirement, as calcium balance is often disrupted in chronic kidney disease.

5. A client has a new diagnosis of GERD. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching about dietary management?

• A. You should increase your intake of high-fat foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of high-fat foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain gluten.
• D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease the intake of high-fat foods. High-fat foods can exacerbate symptoms of GERD by delaying stomach emptying and increasing the risk of reflux. By reducing high-fat foods in the diet, the client can help manage symptoms of GERD and decrease the likelihood of complications. Choice A is incorrect because increasing high-fat foods can worsen GERD symptoms. Choice C is unrelated as gluten is not a specific concern for GERD. Choice D is incorrect as increasing dairy products may lead to increased fat intake, which is not recommended for GERD.

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