ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. In an emergency department, a provider is assessing a client with an acute head injury following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should be prioritized?
- A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
- B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Anisocoria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority finding is the clear fluid leaking from the nose, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak and potential brain injury. This requires immediate attention to assess for possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication of head trauma and needs prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 may indicate a mild alteration in consciousness, it is not as urgent as assessing for a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms after head injuries but do not take precedence over assessing for a potential cerebrospinal fluid leak. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) is also important to note but is not as urgent as identifying a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak in this scenario.
2. A client with diverticulitis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of high-fiber foods.
- B. I should decrease my intake of high-fiber foods.
- C. I should increase my intake of high-fat foods.
- D. I should decrease my intake of high-fat foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Increasing intake of high-fiber foods is essential in managing diverticulitis as it helps prevent constipation and promotes bowel regularity, reducing the risk of complications and improving overall colon health. Choice B is incorrect because decreasing high-fiber foods can worsen diverticulitis symptoms. Choices C and D are also incorrect as increasing high-fat foods can exacerbate diverticulitis, while decreasing high-fat foods is generally recommended to manage the condition.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Use a 1-inch needle.
- B. Stretch the skin at the injection site.
- C. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
- D. Aspirate for blood return before injecting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Aspirating for blood return before injecting is a crucial step in administering intramuscular injections. This action ensures that the needle is not in a blood vessel, reducing the risk of injecting medication into a blood vessel, which can lead to potential complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Using a longer 1-inch needle is often necessary for intramuscular injections to reach the muscle tissue properly. Stretching the skin is not recommended as it can cause unnecessary pain and tissue damage. Inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle is the preferred method for intramuscular injections to ensure proper medication delivery.
4. During an admission interview, a nurse is assessing a client's personal identity. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask?
- A. What is your marital status?
- B. How would you describe yourself?
- C. Are you employed?
- D. Do you have any children?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing personal identity, it is important to ask questions that prompt clients to describe themselves. Question B, 'How would you describe yourself?' is the most appropriate as it allows the client to share their own perceptions and characteristics, aiding in understanding their personal identity. Choices A, C, and D are more focused on specific personal details such as marital status, employment status, and parental status, which do not directly contribute to understanding personal identity.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Decreased creatinine
- C. Increased potassium
- D. Increased calcium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access