ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid drinking milk.
- B. I should avoid drinking coffee.
- C. I should avoid eating high-fiber foods.
- D. I should avoid eating low-fat foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding coffee is important in managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. Coffee is known to stimulate acid secretion in the stomach, which can exacerbate ulcer symptoms. Therefore, instructing the client to avoid drinking coffee is essential in the dietary management of peptic ulcer disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is generally allowed and can even provide a protective effect against ulcers. High-fiber foods are beneficial for digestion and do not need to be avoided unless they cause discomfort. Low-fat foods are also typically recommended for individuals with peptic ulcer disease as they are easier on the digestive system.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Use a 1-inch needle.
- B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
- C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
- D. Aspirate before injecting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, it is important to insert the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper medication delivery into the subcutaneous tissue. This angle helps prevent the medication from being injected too deeply or too superficially, ensuring optimal absorption and therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because the needle length for a subcutaneous injection is typically shorter, around ⅝ to 1 inch. Choice C is incorrect as a tuberculin syringe is not commonly used for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is also incorrect as aspiration is not necessary for subcutaneous injections since there are minimal blood vessels in the subcutaneous tissue.
3. What is the primary benefit of using electronic health records (EHRs) in healthcare?
- A. EHRs eliminate the need for paper records.
- B. EHRs ensure complete patient confidentiality.
- C. EHRs improve the accuracy of patient information.
- D. EHRs reduce the time spent on documentation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary benefit of using electronic health records (EHRs) in healthcare is that they improve the accuracy and completeness of patient information. By utilizing EHRs, healthcare providers have access to more reliable and up-to-date patient data, which leads to better patient care outcomes. This improved accuracy enables healthcare professionals to make better-informed decisions and provide more effective treatments, ultimately enhancing patient safety and quality of care.
4. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Monitor intake and output every 8 hours.
- B. Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours.
- C. Measure the client's temperature every 24 hours.
- D. Change the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours. Flushing the feeding tube every 4 hours is essential to maintain patency and prevent clogging, ensuring the client receives the prescribed enteral nutrition without interruption. This intervention helps prevent complications such as tube occlusion. Monitoring intake and output is important for assessing the client's hydration status but does not directly address tube patency. Measuring the client's temperature is essential for monitoring for signs of infection but is not directly related to tube maintenance. Changing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours is important for infection control but does not address tube patency.
5. A client is being discharged with a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- B. Monitor your weight daily.
- C. Take the medication with food.
- D. Change positions slowly.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction to include for a client being discharged with a prescription for furosemide is to 'Change positions slowly.' Furosemide, a diuretic, can cause dizziness and orthostatic hypotension, increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the body can adjust to postural changes gradually, reducing the likelihood of falls and related injuries.
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