Nursing Elites

1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid drinking milk.
• B. I should avoid drinking coffee.
• C. I should avoid eating high-fiber foods.
• D. I should avoid eating low-fat foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding coffee is important in managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. Coffee is known to stimulate acid secretion in the stomach, which can exacerbate ulcer symptoms. Therefore, instructing the client to avoid drinking coffee is essential in the dietary management of peptic ulcer disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is generally allowed and can even provide a protective effect against ulcers. High-fiber foods are beneficial for digestion and do not need to be avoided unless they cause discomfort. Low-fat foods are also typically recommended for individuals with peptic ulcer disease as they are easier on the digestive system.

2. A client has major fecal incontinence and reports irritation in the perianal area. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply a fecal collection system
• B. Apply a barrier cream
• C. Cleanse and dry the area
• D. Check the client's perineum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client with major fecal incontinence reports irritation in the perianal area, the nurse's initial action should be to assess the client's perineum to gather more information. By checking the perineum, the nurse can identify the extent and nature of the irritation, allowing for appropriate interventions to be initiated. This assessment is crucial in developing a comprehensive care plan and addressing the client's immediate needs effectively. Applying the nursing process priority-setting framework helps in planning care and prioritizing nursing actions, making assessment the initial step in this scenario. Applying a fecal collection system (choice A) would be premature without assessing the perineal area first. Similarly, applying a barrier cream (choice B) or cleansing and drying the area (choice C) should follow the assessment to ensure appropriate interventions are chosen based on the assessment findings.

3. A client is being assessed for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Increased skin turgor
• C. Dark-colored urine
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark-colored urine is a common sign of dehydration as the urine becomes concentrated. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, causing the urine to be darker in color due to increased urine concentration. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, dehydration often leads to low blood pressure. Increased skin turgor (Choice B) is actually a sign of good hydration, not dehydration. Bradypnea (Choice D), which refers to abnormally slow breathing, is not a common finding in dehydration.

4. A client has been on bed rest for 3 days. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to ambulate?

• A. The client uses a walker to move from the bed to the chair.
• B. The client has a strong cough.
• C. The client can bear weight on both legs.
• D. The client has a normal respiratory rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ability to bear weight on both legs indicates muscle strength and stability necessary for ambulation. This skill is crucial for the client to support their body weight and move independently when standing or walking. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because using a walker, having a strong cough, or having a normal respiratory rate do not directly indicate the readiness to ambulate. The key factor in determining readiness for ambulation is the client's ability to bear weight on both legs, demonstrating the necessary strength for standing and walking.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Use a 1-inch needle.
• B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
• D. Aspirate before injecting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, it is important to insert the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper medication delivery into the subcutaneous tissue. This angle helps prevent the medication from being injected too deeply or too superficially, ensuring optimal absorption and therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because the needle length for a subcutaneous injection is typically shorter, around ⅝ to 1 inch. Choice C is incorrect as a tuberculin syringe is not commonly used for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is also incorrect as aspiration is not necessary for subcutaneous injections since there are minimal blood vessels in the subcutaneous tissue.

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