a nurse is teaching a client who has peptic ulcer disease about dietary management which of the following statements by the client indicates an unders
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LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions

1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding coffee is important in managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. Coffee is known to stimulate acid secretion in the stomach, which can exacerbate ulcer symptoms. Therefore, instructing the client to avoid drinking coffee is essential in the dietary management of peptic ulcer disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is generally allowed and can even provide a protective effect against ulcers. High-fiber foods are beneficial for digestion and do not need to be avoided unless they cause discomfort. Low-fat foods are also typically recommended for individuals with peptic ulcer disease as they are easier on the digestive system.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of pancreatitis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in teaching a client with pancreatitis is to decrease the intake of high-fat foods. This dietary modification is crucial in managing symptoms and preventing exacerbations of pancreatitis. High-fat foods can put a strain on the pancreas, potentially leading to further complications. Choice A is incorrect because increasing intake of high-fat foods can worsen pancreatitis. Choice C is unrelated to pancreatitis management, as lactose intolerance is not directly linked to pancreatitis. Choice D is also incorrect, as increasing dairy product intake may not be suitable for all individuals with pancreatitis due to the fat content in many dairy products.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

4. A client has been on bed rest for 3 days. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to ambulate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ability to bear weight on both legs indicates muscle strength and stability necessary for ambulation. This skill is crucial for the client to support their body weight and move independently when standing or walking. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because using a walker, having a strong cough, or having a normal respiratory rate do not directly indicate the readiness to ambulate. The key factor in determining readiness for ambulation is the client's ability to bear weight on both legs, demonstrating the necessary strength for standing and walking.

5. A client has been prescribed enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when educating a client prescribed enoxaparin is to inject the medication once daily. Enoxaparin is typically administered via subcutaneous injection once daily, usually in the abdomen, to prevent blood clots.

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