ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid drinking milk.
- B. I should avoid drinking coffee.
- C. I should avoid eating high-fiber foods.
- D. I should avoid eating low-fat foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding coffee is important in managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. Coffee is known to stimulate acid secretion in the stomach, which can exacerbate ulcer symptoms. Therefore, instructing the client to avoid drinking coffee is essential in the dietary management of peptic ulcer disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is generally allowed and can even provide a protective effect against ulcers. High-fiber foods are beneficial for digestion and do not need to be avoided unless they cause discomfort. Low-fat foods are also typically recommended for individuals with peptic ulcer disease as they are easier on the digestive system.
2. A client has tuberculosis, and the nurse is planning care. Which of the following isolation precautions should the nurse implement?
- A. Protective environment
- B. Contact
- C. Airborne
- D. Droplet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Airborne. Tuberculosis is transmitted through the air, making it an airborne disease. Airborne precautions are crucial to prevent the spread of tuberculosis to others. These precautions include placing the client in a negative pressure room, wearing an N95 respirator mask, and ensuring proper ventilation to minimize the risk of transmission to healthcare workers and other clients. Choice A, Protective environment, is used for clients with compromised immune systems. Choice B, Contact precautions, are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice D, Droplet precautions, are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, like influenza or pertussis.
3. In an emergency department, a provider is assessing a client with an acute head injury following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should be prioritized?
- A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
- B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Anisocoria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority finding is the clear fluid leaking from the nose, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak and potential brain injury. This requires immediate attention to assess for possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication of head trauma and needs prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 may indicate a mild alteration in consciousness, it is not as urgent as assessing for a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms after head injuries but do not take precedence over assessing for a potential cerebrospinal fluid leak. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) is also important to note but is not as urgent as identifying a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak in this scenario.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Use a 1-inch needle.
- B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
- C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
- D. Aspirate before injecting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, it is important to insert the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper medication delivery into the subcutaneous tissue. This angle helps prevent the medication from being injected too deeply or too superficially, ensuring optimal absorption and therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because the needle length for a subcutaneous injection is typically shorter, around ⅝ to 1 inch. Choice C is incorrect as a tuberculin syringe is not commonly used for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is also incorrect as aspiration is not necessary for subcutaneous injections since there are minimal blood vessels in the subcutaneous tissue.
5. A client with a new diagnosis of diverticulitis is being taught dietary management by a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements should the provider include in the teaching?
- A. You should increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
- B. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
- C. You should decrease your intake of high-fiber foods.
- D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increasing intake of high-fiber foods is essential in managing diverticulitis as it promotes regular bowel movements and prevents constipation, reducing the risk of complications and improving overall digestive health. Choice B is incorrect because lactose intolerance is different from diverticulitis and avoiding lactose is not a standard recommendation for diverticulitis. Choice C is incorrect as decreasing high-fiber foods would be counterproductive for managing diverticulitis. Choice D is wrong because increasing dairy products is not a primary dietary recommendation for diverticulitis management.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access