Nursing Elites

1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid drinking milk.
• B. I should avoid drinking coffee.
• C. I should avoid eating high-fiber foods.
• D. I should avoid eating low-fat foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding coffee is important in managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. Coffee is known to stimulate acid secretion in the stomach, which can exacerbate ulcer symptoms. Therefore, instructing the client to avoid drinking coffee is essential in the dietary management of peptic ulcer disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is generally allowed and can even provide a protective effect against ulcers. High-fiber foods are beneficial for digestion and do not need to be avoided unless they cause discomfort. Low-fat foods are also typically recommended for individuals with peptic ulcer disease as they are easier on the digestive system.

2. Which of the following statements indicates the client understands the colostomy care instructions?

• A. I will change the colostomy bag once a week.
• B. I will avoid eating high-fiber foods.
• C. I will clean around the stoma with mild soap and water.
• D. I will apply lotion to the skin around the stoma.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cleaning around the stoma with mild soap and water is crucial for colostomy care as it helps prevent infection and skin irritation. Changing the colostomy bag frequency, dietary modifications, or applying lotion are not primary aspects of stoma care. Proper cleaning around the stoma helps maintain hygiene and prevents complications, making it a key component of caring for a colostomy.

3. When should discharge planning begin for a client admitted to a long-term care facility for rehabilitation after a total hip arthroplasty?

• A. One week prior to the client's discharge
• B. Upon the client's admission to the care facility
• C. Once the discharge date is identified
• D. When the client addresses the topic with the nurse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin upon the client's admission to the care facility. This early start allows the healthcare team to conduct assessments, set goals, and coordinate services for a smooth transition back home or to the community. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely arrangements, leading to optimal outcomes and continuity of care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until one week before discharge, after the discharge date is identified, or until the client brings up the topic may lead to rushed decision-making, inadequate arrangements, and a less effective transition process.

4. In an emergency department, a provider is assessing a client with an acute head injury following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should be prioritized?

• A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
• B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Anisocoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding is the clear fluid leaking from the nose, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak and potential brain injury. This requires immediate attention to assess for possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication of head trauma and needs prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 may indicate a mild alteration in consciousness, it is not as urgent as assessing for a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms after head injuries but do not take precedence over assessing for a potential cerebrospinal fluid leak. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) is also important to note but is not as urgent as identifying a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak in this scenario.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Pallor.
• C. Hypertension.
• D. Jaundice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pallor is a common finding in clients with anemia due to decreased hemoglobin levels. Anemia leads to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, resulting in pale skin and mucous membranes, which is known as pallor. Bradycardia, hypertension, and jaundice are typically not associated with anemia.

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