ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A client just received their first dose of lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?
- A. Place the client on cardiac monitoring
- B. Monitor the client’s oxygen saturation
- C. Provide standby assistance when the client gets out of bed
- D. Encourage foods high in potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to provide standby assistance when the client gets out of bed. Lisinopril can cause hypotension, especially after the first dose, which can lead to dizziness and falls. Standby assistance helps prevent potential injury. Placing the client on cardiac monitoring (choice A) or monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) are not typically necessary after the first dose of lisinopril unless specific symptoms are present. Encouraging foods high in potassium (choice D) is not directly related to the immediate concern of postural hypotension associated with lisinopril.
2. While reviewing the medical record of a client with unstable angina, which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. BP 106/62 mm Hg, Temp 38°C (100.4°F), HR 112/min, Resp rate 26/min, urine output 90 mL/hr
- B. Skin is cool and moist with pallor
- C. Bilateral breath sounds with crackles heard at bases of lungs
- D. Creatinine kinase 100 units/L, C-reactive protein 0.8 mg/dL, Myoglobin 88 mcg/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse should report these vital signs to the provider immediately as they indicate increased temperature, tachycardia, and tachypnea, which are signs of possible infection or systemic inflammatory response. This could exacerbate the client's unstable angina and needs prompt evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are not as urgent as the vital signs in option A and do not directly indicate a worsening condition in the context of unstable angina.
3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate for the treatment of anemia. Which of the following instructions should be included in client teaching about this medication?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach
- B. Notify your provider if your stool becomes dark green
- C. Decrease dietary fiber intake while taking this medication
- D. Take prescribed antacids at the same time as this medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate for anemia is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This is because ferrous sulfate is best absorbed in an acidic environment, which is enhanced on an empty stomach. However, if the client experiences gastrointestinal side effects, they can take the medication with food. Choice B, notifying the provider if stool becomes dark green, is correct because dark or black stools are common with iron therapy and not a cause for concern. Choice C, decreasing dietary fiber intake, is incorrect as dietary fiber does not interfere with the absorption of ferrous sulfate. Choice D, taking prescribed antacids at the same time, is incorrect as antacids can decrease the absorption of ferrous sulfate.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client prescribed amiodarone. Which of the following should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Serum potassium levels
- C. Blood pressure
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Amiodarone is known to potentially affect liver function, potassium levels, and blood pressure. Monitoring all these parameters regularly is crucial to detect any adverse effects early on. Liver function tests are necessary as amiodarone can cause hepatotoxicity. Serum potassium levels should be monitored due to the risk of hypokalemia or hyperkalemia with amiodarone use. Blood pressure monitoring is essential as amiodarone can cause hypotension or hypertension. Choosing 'All of the above' is the correct answer because all these parameters should be monitored to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring only one or two of these parameters may lead to missing important signs of adverse effects.
5. A client is in active labor and is receiving an epidural for pain relief. Which of the following should the nurse monitor as the priority?
- A. Fetal heart rate
- B. Client's blood pressure
- C. Client's respiratory rate
- D. Client's pain level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most common side effect of an epidural is hypotension, which can compromise placental perfusion. Monitoring the client's blood pressure is the priority to ensure maternal and fetal well-being. Fetal heart rate is important but monitoring the client's blood pressure takes precedence due to the risk of hypotension. Respiratory rate and pain level monitoring are also important but not the priority in this scenario.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access