a nurse is caring for a client who sprained his ankle 12 hours ago which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse question
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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is caring for a client who sprained his ankle 12 hours ago. Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse question?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to apply heat to the affected extremity for 45 minutes. Heat should not be applied in the first 48 hours after an acute injury, as it can increase swelling. Cold therapy is more appropriate initially. Choices A, C, and D are appropriate actions in the care of a client with a sprained ankle. Elevating the affected extremity helps reduce swelling, wrapping it with a compression dressing provides support, and assessing sensation, movement, and pulse every 4 hours is important to monitor for complications.

2. A nurse is reviewing dietary assessment findings for a client who is Jewish and observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. According to kosher dietary laws, meat and dairy products cannot be consumed together. This practice stems from the prohibition in Jewish law against cooking a young animal in its mother's milk. Therefore, the nurse should expect to find that meat and dairy products are eaten separately. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Leavened bread is not eaten during Passover (Choice A), shellfish is not consumed in the kosher diet (Choice B), and fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah (Choice D).

3. A client just received the first dose of lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide standby assistance when getting out of bed. Lisinopril can cause first-dose hypotension, leading to dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. Standby assistance helps ensure the client's safety when mobilizing. Placing the client on cardiac monitoring (choice A) is not necessary unless there are specific indications for cardiac monitoring. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) is not directly related to the side effects of lisinopril. Encouraging foods high in potassium (choice D) is not the most immediate or appropriate intervention following the administration of lisinopril.

4. Before an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before an amniocentesis, the client should empty their bladder. This is necessary to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. A full bladder can be in the path of the needle, increasing the risk of injury. Increasing fluid intake (choice A) is not necessary before an amniocentesis. Avoiding eating for 12 hours (choice C) is not a standard preparation for an amniocentesis. Taking a sedative (choice D) is not routinely required for this procedure.

5. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which result should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: WBC 3,000/mm³. A WBC count of 3,000/mm³ indicates neutropenia, which is a condition characterized by a low level of white blood cells, specifically neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection and requires immediate medical attention, especially in clients undergoing chemotherapy. Reporting this result to the provider promptly is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL, platelet count of 250,000/mm³, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L are all normal values and would not typically require immediate reporting unless there are specific concerns related to the individual client's condition.

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