Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
• B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours after surgery
• C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 bpm
• D. Client who has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, which puts the client at high risk of infection and requires immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases the susceptibility to infections due to a significant decrease in neutrophils, which are essential for fighting off bacteria and other pathogens. Reporting this critical lab value promptly to the provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions are initiated to prevent life-threatening infections. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent reporting to the provider.

2. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Apical pulse
• D. Urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apical pulse. Digoxin's primary effect is to strengthen the force of the heart's contractions and slow the heart rate. Monitoring the apical pulse is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of digoxin as it helps assess the medication's impact on the heart's function. Option A, respiratory rate, is not directly related to digoxin's mechanism of action and is not the most appropriate parameter to monitor for this medication. Option B, blood pressure, while important, may not be as sensitive as the apical pulse in assessing the effectiveness of digoxin. Option D, urine output, is more indicative of kidney function and fluid balance, rather than the direct effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone levels, which results in potassium retention. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and tinnitus (Choice D) are also not typically associated with enalapril use.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The nurse notes recurrent variable decelerations of the FHR. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare the equipment necessary to initiate an amnioinfusion
• B. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via a non-rebreather face mask
• C. Discontinue the infusion of oxytocin
• D. Place the client in a left lateral position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to discontinue the infusion of oxytocin. Oxytocin can lead to uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress, contributing to variable decelerations in fetal heart rate. By stopping the oxytocin infusion, the nurse can promptly assess and manage the fetal heart rate. Choice A, preparing for amnioinfusion, is not the priority when faced with recurrent variable decelerations. Choice B, administering oxygen, is important but addressing the oxytocin infusion issue takes precedence. Choice D, placing the client in a left lateral position, is beneficial for optimizing fetal oxygenation but discontinuing oxytocin is the initial step in managing variable decelerations.

5. A nurse is planning care to prevent complications in a client with immobility. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Massage lower extremities daily to prevent DVT
• B. Remove anti-embolism stockings for 3 hours each day
• C. Limit intake of foods high in calcium to prevent renal calculi
• D. Encourage the client to lie supine to prevent constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because removing anti-embolism stockings for short periods prevents skin breakdown while ensuring that the stockings remain effective in promoting circulation. Choice A is incorrect because massaging lower extremities daily does not prevent DVT; instead, it may dislodge a clot. Choice C is incorrect as limiting intake of foods high in calcium does not prevent renal calculi; rather, it may help reduce the risk of kidney stones. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to lie supine does not prevent constipation; instead, encouraging mobility and adequate fluid intake can help prevent constipation in immobile clients.

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