Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
• B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours after surgery
• C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 bpm
• D. Client who has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, which puts the client at high risk of infection and requires immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases the susceptibility to infections due to a significant decrease in neutrophils, which are essential for fighting off bacteria and other pathogens. Reporting this critical lab value promptly to the provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions are initiated to prevent life-threatening infections. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent reporting to the provider.

2. When assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction, what finding should a nurse expect?

• A. Significant abdominal distention
• B. Large bowel movements
• C. High-pitched bowel sounds
• D. Copious vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High-pitched bowel sounds are often heard early in a small bowel obstruction due to increased peristalsis as the bowel tries to overcome the blockage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Abdominal distention is more commonly associated with large bowel obstructions, while large bowel movements and copious vomiting are not typical findings in small bowel obstructions.

3. A client is being educated by a nurse on nutritional intake. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Carbohydrates should be at least 45% of your caloric intake
• B. Protein should be at least 55% of your caloric intake
• C. Carbohydrates should be at least 30% of your caloric intake
• D. Protein should be at least 60% of your caloric intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Carbohydrates should make up 45-65% of daily caloric intake as they are the body’s main source of energy. This aligns with general dietary recommendations. Choice B is incorrect as protein should typically make up about 10-35% of daily caloric intake, not 55%. Choice C is also incorrect, as carbohydrates should ideally be between 45-65%, not 30%. Choice D is incorrect because protein should generally account for around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 60%.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of dehydration. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Dry mucous membranes
• C. Decreased urination
• D. Both B and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Signs of dehydration include dry mucous membranes and decreased urination, among other symptoms. Bradycardia is not a typical sign of dehydration; instead, tachycardia (increased heart rate) is more commonly associated with dehydration. Therefore, option A is incorrect. While dry mucous membranes and decreased urination are indicative of dehydration, selecting only one of these symptoms would not provide a comprehensive assessment. Hence, option D, which includes both dry mucous membranes and decreased urination, is the correct choice.

5. A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?

• A. Spinach
• B. Peanut butter
• C. Ground beef
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.

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