ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin IV for augmentation of labor. The client’s contractions are occurring every 45 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180/minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
- B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
- C. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
- D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the contractions are too frequent (tachysystole), and the fetal heart rate is elevated. Tachysystole can lead to decreased oxygen perfusion to the fetus, causing fetal distress. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion to prevent harm to both the mother and fetus. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the current situation, potentially leading to further complications. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion may not be sufficient to address the tachysystole and elevated fetal heart rate, making it an inappropriate choice.
2. A nurse is teaching a client about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. “Your provider will use stool samples from your bowel movement to perform the test.â€
- B. “Your provider will prescribe a stimulant laxative prior to the procedure to cleanse the bowel.â€
- C. “You should begin biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at 50 years old.â€
- D. “You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing.â€
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid corticosteroids and vitamin C prior to testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect because stool samples from bowel movements, not from digital rectal examinations, are used for FOBT. Choice B is incorrect because a stimulant laxative is not typically prescribed before FOBT; rather, the client is instructed to follow specific dietary restrictions. Choice C is incorrect because biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening usually begins at 50 years old, not 40.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will decrease my intake of foods that are high in phosphorus
- B. I will increase my intake of foods that are high in potassium
- C. I will decrease my intake of foods that are high in iron
- D. I will increase my intake of calcium supplements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit their intake of phosphorus because high phosphorus levels can lead to bone disease and cardiovascular problems. Increasing foods high in potassium (choice B) is not recommended as it can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease. Decreasing intake of foods high in iron (choice C) is not specifically indicated for chronic kidney disease. Increasing calcium supplements (choice D) may not be necessary and can potentially lead to hypercalcemia in individuals with kidney disease.
4. A client is being treated for eclampsia. What is a priority nursing intervention?
- A. Assess for hyperreflexia
- B. Administer oxygen
- C. Monitor blood pressure every 15 minutes
- D. Prepare for delivery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Assess for hyperreflexia.' Eclampsia is a severe complication of pregnancy that involves seizures. Hyperreflexia, an overactive or overresponsive reflex, is often an early sign of impending eclampsia. By assessing for hyperreflexia, nurses can identify this warning sign and take preventive measures to manage the condition before seizures occur. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is important but assessing for hyperreflexia takes precedence as it can lead to immediate life-threatening complications. While preparing for delivery (Choice D) may ultimately be necessary, the immediate priority is to assess for hyperreflexia to prevent seizures.
5. A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with the parents of a newborn. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. We will place the baby on its back to sleep
- B. We will give the baby a pacifier at bedtime
- C. We will keep the baby's crib free of blankets and toys
- D. We will leave the baby's diaper off to prevent diaper rash
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Leaving the baby's diaper off to prevent diaper rash is not recommended because it increases the risk of infection. Proper diaper hygiene and frequent diaper changes are more effective in preventing diaper rash. Choices A, B, and C are correct as placing the baby on its back to sleep, giving the baby a pacifier at bedtime, and keeping the baby's crib free of blankets and toys are appropriate measures to ensure the newborn's safety and reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).
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