Nursing Elites

1. A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin reports nausea and refuses to eat breakfast. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to eat the toast on the breakfast tray.
• B. Administer an antiemetic.
• C. Inform the client's provider.
• D. Check the client's apical pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to check the client's apical pulse. Nausea can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and one of the early signs of digoxin toxicity is changes in the pulse rate. By checking the client's apical pulse, the nurse can assess if the digoxin level is too high. Encouraging the client to eat or administering an antiemetic may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. While informing the provider is important, assessing the client's condition through checking the apical pulse should be the immediate priority.

2. A client with chronic kidney failure and an AV fistula for hemodialysis is prescribed epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Reduces blood pressure
• B. Inhibits clotting of fistula
• C. Promotes RBC production
• D. Stimulates growth of neutrophils

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Promotes RBC production. Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis (red blood cell production) to treat anemia associated with chronic kidney failure. This helps in increasing the hemoglobin levels and improving oxygen-carrying capacity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as epoetin alfa does not have direct effects on reducing blood pressure, inhibiting clotting of the fistula, or stimulating the growth of neutrophils.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for chlorpromazine to treat schizophrenia. The client has a mask-like facial expression and is experiencing involuntary movements and tremors. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. Amantadine
• B. Bupropion
• C. Phenelzine
• D. Hydroxyzine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Amantadine. Amantadine is used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, such as mask-like facial expressions, involuntary movements, and tremors, which are common side effects of antipsychotic medications like chlorpromazine. Bupropion is an antidepressant and not indicated for treating these symptoms. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and anxiety disorders, not for extrapyramidal symptoms. Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine used for anxiety and allergic conditions, not for the side effects described in the client.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round to the nearest whole number)

• A. 33 gtt/min
• B. 66 gtt/min
• C. 10 gtt/min
• D. 14 gtt/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the IV flow rate, you multiply the drop factor (10 gtt/mL) by the volume to be infused per minute (50 mL / 15 min). This gives you 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL / 15 min = 33.33. Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min. Choice B (66 gtt/min) is incorrect as it is the result of doubling the correct answer. Choice C (10 gtt/min) is incorrect as it only considers the drop factor without accounting for the volume to be infused. Choice D (14 gtt/min) is incorrect as it miscalculates the infusion rate based on the given information.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion and has an aPTT of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take?

• A. Administer vitamin K
• B. Reduce the infusion rate
• C. Give the client a low-dose aspirin
• D. Request an INR

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The appropriate action is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin to prevent further complications. Administering vitamin K is not indicated for an elevated aPTT due to heparin therapy. Giving the client a low-dose aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with heparin. Requesting an INR is not necessary for monitoring heparin therapy; aPTT is the more specific test for assessing heparin's therapeutic effect. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to prepare to take is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin.

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