Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed gabapentin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Renal function
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Cardiac rhythm

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Renal function. Gabapentin is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, so monitoring renal function is essential to ensure the drug is being cleared effectively from the body. Monitoring liver function tests (choice A) is not a priority for gabapentin as it is not primarily metabolized by the liver. Blood glucose levels (choice C) are not directly impacted by gabapentin. Cardiac rhythm (choice D) monitoring is not typically necessary for clients on gabapentin unless they have pre-existing cardiac conditions that may be exacerbated by the medication.

2. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change for a client with a surgical wound. Which action should the nurse take to prevent contamination during the dressing change?

• A. Proceed with the dressing change
• B. Restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field
• C. Continue without concern for minor splashes
• D. Delegate the task to another nurse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take to prevent contamination during a sterile dressing change is to restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field. Any contamination of the sterile field compromises the aseptic technique and increases the risk of infection for the client. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain the sterility of the field throughout the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because proceeding with the dressing change, continuing without concern for minor splashes, or delegating the task to another nurse would all compromise the sterility of the procedure and increase the risk of infection for the client.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Fluid overload
• C. Decreased blood pressure
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid overload. Clients with chronic kidney disease are prone to fluid overload due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively regulate fluid balance, leading to fluid retention. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload, such as edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hypokalemia, is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys often have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia. Decreased blood pressure (Choice C) is not a common finding in chronic kidney disease unless complications like volume depletion occur. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease; in fact, many clients may experience a decreased appetite due to various factors such as uremia and dietary restrictions.

4. A nurse is obtaining the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a contraindication to this medication?

• A. Glaucoma
• B. Hypertension
• C. Polycythemia
• D. Migraine headaches

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isosorbide mononitrate is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma due to its potential to increase intraocular pressure, which can exacerbate the condition. Hypertension, polycythemia, and migraine headaches are not contraindications for isosorbide mononitrate. In fact, isosorbide mononitrate is commonly used in the management of hypertension and certain types of angina.

5. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

• A. 4
• B. 7 (comatose)
• C. 9
• D. 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

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