Nursing Elites

1. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?

• A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
• B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
• C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
• D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.

2. An adolescent is being taught about levonorgestrel contraception by a school nurse. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse.
• B. Do not take this medication if you are on an oral contraceptive.
• C. If you do not start your period within 5 days of taking this medication, you will need a pregnancy test.
• D. One dose of this medication will prevent pregnancy for 14 days after taking it.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraceptive that works by inhibiting ovulation to prevent conception. It is most effective when taken as soon as possible within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the adolescent to take the medication promptly to maximize its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because levonorgestrel can be used even if the individual is on oral contraceptives. Choice C is incorrect as the efficacy of levonorgestrel is not determined by the onset of menstruation. Choice D is incorrect because levonorgestrel is a single-dose emergency contraceptive and does not provide protection for 14 days after ingestion.

3. A healthcare provider is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?

• A. Assess deep tendon reflexes every hour.
• B. Obtain a daily weight.
• C. Continuous fetal monitoring
• D. Ambulate twice daily

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ambulating twice daily is not recommended for a client with severe preeclampsia. Clients with severe preeclampsia are at risk for seizures and should be on bed rest to prevent complications. Ambulation can increase blood pressure and the risk of seizure activity in these clients. Assessing deep tendon reflexes, obtaining a daily weight, and continuous fetal monitoring are all appropriate and important interventions for a client with severe preeclampsia to monitor for signs of worsening condition and fetal well-being.

4. A client in active labor has 7 cm of cervical dilation, 100% effacement, and the fetus at 1+ station. The client's amniotic membranes are intact, but she suddenly expresses the need to push. What should the nurse do?

• A. Assist the client into a comfortable position.
• B. Observe the perineum for signs of crowning.
• C. Have the client pant during the next contractions.
• D. Help the client to the bathroom to void.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having the client pant during contractions is crucial to prevent premature pushing, particularly when the cervix is not fully dilated. Premature pushing can lead to cervical swelling and may impede the progress of labor. It is important to allow the cervix to fully dilate before active pushing to prevent complications. Assisting the client into a comfortable position (Choice A) may not address the urge to push and can lead to premature pushing. Observing the perineum for signs of crowning (Choice B) is important but does not address the immediate need to prevent premature pushing. Helping the client to the bathroom to void (Choice D) does not address the urge to push and may not be appropriate at this stage of labor.

5. A client who is pregnant states that her last menstrual period was April 1st. What is the client's estimated date of delivery?

• A. January 8
• B. January 15
• C. February 8
• D. February 15

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the estimated date of delivery, add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (April 1st), which gives April 8th. Then, count forward 9 months from April 8th, leading to January 8th as the estimated date of delivery. Choice A is correct. Choice B is incorrect because it is exactly 9 months from the last menstrual period without accounting for the additional 7 days. Choices C and D are incorrect as they fall in February, which is beyond the 9-month period from the last menstrual period.

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