Nursing Elites

1. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?

• A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
• B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
• C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
• D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.

2. A client who is 2 hours postpartum is in the taking-hold phase. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement during this phase of postpartum behavioral adjustment?

• A. Discuss contraceptive options with the client and her partner.
• B. Repeat information to ensure client understanding.
• C. Listen to the client and her partner as they reflect upon the birth experience.
• D. Demonstrate to the client how to perform a newborn bath.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the taking-hold phase of postpartum behavioral adjustment, the new mother starts taking a stronger interest in her new role as a mother. This phase involves the mother focusing on the care of her newborn and acquiring parenting skills. Demonstrating how to perform a newborn bath is an appropriate intervention during this phase as it helps the mother actively engage in caring for her baby, which aligns with the developmental tasks of this phase. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically address the mother's need to actively engage in caring for her newborn during the taking-hold phase. Discussing contraceptive options, repeating information, and listening to reflections on the birth experience are more relevant to other phases of postpartum adjustment.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr IV to a client who is in preterm labor. Available is 20 g of magnesium sulfate in 500 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W). How many mL/hr should the IV infusion pump be set to administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 60
• B. 30
• C. 50
• D. 80

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To administer magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr IV, the healthcare professional should set the IV infusion pump to administer 50 mL/hr. The calculation is as follows: 20 g / 500 mL = 2 g / X mL, X = 50 mL/hr. Choice A (60 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not match the calculated rate. Choice B (30 mL/hr) is incorrect as it is half of the calculated rate. Choice D (80 mL/hr) is incorrect as it is higher than the calculated rate.

4. A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?

• A. Placenta previa
• B. Prolapsed cord
• C. Incompetent cervix
• D. Abruptio placentae

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding are indicative of abruptio placentae, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent potential complications for both the client and the fetus. Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, not sudden abdominal pain. Prolapsed cord presents with visible umbilical cord protruding from the vagina and is not associated with abruptio placentae symptoms. Incompetent cervix typically manifests as painless cervical dilation in the second trimester, not sudden abdominal pain and bleeding as seen in abruptio placentae.

5. When a client states, 'My water just broke,' what is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Perform Nitrazine testing.
• B. Assess the fluid.
• C. Check cervical dilation.
• D. Begin FHR monitoring.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Begin FHR monitoring. The priority intervention when a client's water breaks is to assess the fetal well-being due to the risk of umbilical cord prolapse. Monitoring the fetal heart rate (FHR) will help the nurse ensure the fetus's well-being. Performing Nitrazine testing (choice A) or assessing the fluid (choice B) may provide information about the rupture of membranes but does not directly address fetal well-being. Checking cervical dilation (choice C) is important but not the priority when the client's water has broken.

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