Nursing Elites

1. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?

• A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
• B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
• C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
• D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.

2. A nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who is in an incubator to maintain a neutral thermal environment. The father of the newborn asks the nurse why this is necessary. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Preterm newborns have a smaller body surface area than normal newborns.
• B. The added brown fat layer in a preterm newborn reduces his ability to generate heat.
• C. Preterm newborns lack adequate temperature control mechanisms.
• D. The heat in the incubator rapidly dries the sweat of preterm newborns.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because preterm newborns have immature temperature regulation mechanisms, making it difficult for them to maintain their body temperature. An incubator helps maintain a stable thermal environment. Choice A is incorrect as the body surface area is not the primary reason for needing an incubator. Choice B is incorrect because brown fat in preterm newborns actually helps generate heat. Choice D is incorrect as the purpose of the incubator is not to dry sweat but to regulate the newborn's temperature.

3. A client who is at 40 weeks gestation and in active labor has 6 cm of cervical dilation and 100% cervical effacement. The client's blood pressure reading is 82/52 mm Hg. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform?

• A. Prepare for a cesarean birth.
• B. Assist the client to an upright position.
• C. Prepare for an immediate vaginal delivery.
• D. Assist the client to turn onto her side.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Turning the client onto her side is the appropriate nursing intervention in this scenario. This position can help improve blood pressure by enhancing venous return, which may aid in increasing perfusion to vital organs. It can also alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, promoting better circulation and supporting blood pressure stabilization during labor. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A cesarean birth is not indicated based on the information provided. Assisting the client to an upright position may worsen her blood pressure due to decreased venous return. Lastly, there is no indication for an immediate vaginal delivery solely based on the client's blood pressure reading.

4. A client who is pregnant states that her last menstrual period was April 1st. What is the client's estimated date of delivery?

• A. January 8
• B. January 15
• C. February 8
• D. February 15

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the estimated date of delivery, add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (April 1st), which gives April 8th. Then, count forward 9 months from April 8th, leading to January 8th as the estimated date of delivery. Choice A is correct. Choice B is incorrect because it is exactly 9 months from the last menstrual period without accounting for the additional 7 days. Choices C and D are incorrect as they fall in February, which is beyond the 9-month period from the last menstrual period.

5. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Betamethasone
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Nifedipine
• D. Methylergonovine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.

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