Nursing Elites

1. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?

• A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
• B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
• C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
• D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.

2. A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Have the client sit upright on the bed with legs crossed.
• B. Administer a 500 mL bolus of lactated Ringer's solution prior to induction.
• C. Inform the client that the anesthetic effect will last for approximately 2 hours.
• D. Obtain a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to induction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Obtaining a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to epidural analgesia is crucial to establish a baseline for fetal heart rate and uterine activity. This baseline helps in monitoring fetal well-being during labor and assessing the effect of analgesia on the baby. It enables the healthcare team to identify any changes in the fetal heart rate pattern and uterine contractions, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not necessary for epidural placement, administering a bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not typically done before epidural analgesia, and the duration of the anesthetic effect varies and is not accurately 2 hours.

3. A caregiver is being taught about bottle feeding a newborn. Which of the following statements by the caregiver indicates a need for further instruction?

• A. I will keep the baby's head elevated while feeding.
• B. I will allow the baby to burp several times during each feeding.
• C. I will tilt the bottle to prevent air from entering as the baby sucks.
• D. My baby will have soft, formed yellow stools.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tilting the bottle to prevent air from entering as the baby sucks can lead to the baby swallowing air, causing discomfort and potential issues like colic or gas. The correct way to bottle-feed a newborn is by ensuring that the nipple is always filled with milk to avoid air intake, which can lead to problems. Keeping the baby's head elevated while feeding helps prevent choking, allowing the baby to burp several times during each feeding helps release swallowed air, and soft, formed yellow stools indicate a healthy digestion process in newborns.

4. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?

• A. You will need to drink the glucose solution 1 hour prior to the test.
• B. Limit your carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test.
• C. A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result.
• D. You will need to fast for 8 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching for a client scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test at 24 weeks of gestation is that a blood glucose level of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This range indicates a potential issue with glucose metabolism and would prompt the need for a follow-up 3-hour glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In a 1-hour glucose tolerance test, the glucose solution is typically consumed within a specific timeframe before the test, not necessarily 1 hour prior. There is usually no specific requirement to limit carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test. Fasting for 8 hours prior to the test is more common for a fasting glucose test, not a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.

5. When assessing newborn reflexes, what action should be taken to elicit the Moro reflex?

• A. Perform a sharp hand clap near the infant.
• B. Hold the newborn vertically allowing one foot to touch the table surface.
• C. Place a finger at the base of the newborn's toes.
• D. Turn the newborn's head quickly to one side.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform a sharp hand clap near the infant. The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is elicited by a sudden stimuli such as a sharp hand clap near the infant. This reflex is characterized by the infant's arms extending and then flexing with a distinctive 'startle' motion. It is a normal and expected reflex in newborns, typically disappearing by 3-6 months of age. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not elicit the Moro reflex; holding the newborn vertically (choice B) or placing a finger at the base of the newborn's toes (choice C) are associated with other reflexes, while turning the newborn's head quickly to one side (choice D) is related to the tonic neck reflex.

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