ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored
1. When monitoring uterine contractions in a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds
- B. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes
- C. Contractions are strong in intensity
- D. Client reports feeling contractions in the lower back
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the active phase of the first stage of labor, contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, leading to decreased placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes are within the normal range for the active phase of labor. Strong contractions and feeling contractions in the lower back are common experiences during labor and not necessarily concerning unless associated with other complications.
2. A client is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation. Which of the following instructions should the client include?
- A. Use a condom with sexual intercourse
- B. Avoid bubble bath solution when taking a tub bath
- C. Wipe from front to back when performing perineal hygiene
- D. Keep a daily record of fetal kick counts
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Keeping a daily record of fetal kick counts is crucial for clients with premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation as it helps monitor fetal well-being. This activity enables the client to assess the frequency and strength of fetal movements, which can provide important information about the fetus' health and development. Other options such as using a condom with sexual intercourse, avoiding bubble bath solution, and wiping from front to back are important for general perinatal care but are not specifically related to managing premature rupture of membranes.
3. A client has a new prescription for chlamydia. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?
- A. This infection is treated with one dose of azithromycin.
- B. If your sexual partner has no symptoms, no medication is needed.
- C. You should avoid sexual relations for 3 days.
- D. You need to return in 6 months for retesting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct treatment for chlamydia is a one-time dose of azithromycin. It is crucial for the client to understand the correct medication regimen for effective treatment. Choice B is incorrect because treatment is necessary for the partner even if asymptomatic. Choice C is incorrect because sexual relations should be avoided until treatment is completed. Choice D is incorrect as retesting should generally occur 3 months after treatment.
4. A nurse is providing education about family bonding to parents who recently adopted a newborn. The nurse should make which of the following suggestions to aid the family's 7-year-old child in accepting the new family member?
- A. Allow the sibling to hold the newborn during a bath.
- B. Make sure the sibling kisses the newborn each night.
- C. Obtain a gift from the newborn to present to the sibling.
- D. Switch the sibling's room with the nursery.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To help a 7-year-old child accept a new family member, it is important to involve them in the process. Obtaining a gift from the newborn to present to the sibling is a thoughtful gesture that can make the older child feel included and valued in the family dynamic. This strategy fosters a sense of connection and understanding between the siblings, promoting acceptance and bonding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly involve the older sibling in a positive and inclusive manner. Allowing the sibling to hold the newborn during a bath or making them kiss the newborn might not resonate well with the 7-year-old and could potentially create negative feelings. Switching the sibling's room with the nursery is a major change that may not necessarily promote acceptance and bonding, and it could lead to feelings of displacement or confusion.
5. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?
- A. You will need to drink the glucose solution 1 hour prior to the test.
- B. Limit your carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test.
- C. A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result.
- D. You will need to fast for 8 hours prior to the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching for a client scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test at 24 weeks of gestation is that a blood glucose level of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This range indicates a potential issue with glucose metabolism and would prompt the need for a follow-up 3-hour glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In a 1-hour glucose tolerance test, the glucose solution is typically consumed within a specific timeframe before the test, not necessarily 1 hour prior. There is usually no specific requirement to limit carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test. Fasting for 8 hours prior to the test is more common for a fasting glucose test, not a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.
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