Nursing Elites

1. A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?

• A. Shortly after giving birth
• B. In the third trimester
• C. Immediately
• D. During the next attempt to get pregnant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella immunization is recommended shortly after giving birth for a pregnant individual who lacks immunity. This timing ensures the client is protected from rubella in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine postpartum allows the body to develop immunity without posing any risk to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Option B is incorrect because administering the rubella vaccine in the third trimester can potentially expose the developing fetus to the live virus, which is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as there is a preferred timing for rubella immunization in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current pregnancy from rubella exposure.

2. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
• B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
• D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

3. A client in labor requests epidural anesthesia for pain control. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Position the client supine for 30 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• B. Administer 1,000 mL of dextrose 5% in water after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• C. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• D. Ensure the client has been NPO for 4 hours before the placement of the epidural and the first dose of anesthetic solution.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 to 10 minutes following the first dose of anesthetic solution to assess for maternal hypotension. This is crucial to detect and manage potential complications associated with the epidural anesthesia. Positioning the client supine for a prolonged period can lead to hypotension; administering dextrose solution is not a standard practice in epidural anesthesia; ensuring NPO status for 4 hours is not necessary before epidural placement.

4. A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow.

• A. Palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part.
• B. Determine the location of the fetal back.
• C. Palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet.
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence for the nurse to follow when performing Leopold maneuvers is as follows: first, palpate the client's fundus to identify the fetal part, second, determine the location of the fetal back, third, palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet, and finally, palpate the cephalic prominence to identify the attitude of the head. Therefore, option D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer as it includes all the steps in the correct sequence. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not represent the complete sequence required for performing Leopold maneuvers.

5. A client at 28 weeks of gestation received terbutaline. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal heart rate 100/min
• B. Weakened uterine contractions
• C. Enhanced production of fetal lung surfactant
• D. Maternal blood glucose 63 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication that works by relaxing the uterine muscles, leading to weakened uterine contractions. This effect helps to prevent preterm labor. Therefore, the nurse should expect weakened uterine contractions in a client who has received terbutaline at 28 weeks of gestation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Terbutaline administration would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, enhance fetal lung surfactant production, or cause maternal hypoglycemia.

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