ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored
1. A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?
- A. Shortly after giving birth
- B. In the third trimester
- C. Immediately
- D. During the next attempt to get pregnant
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rubella immunization is recommended shortly after giving birth for a pregnant individual who lacks immunity. This timing ensures the client is protected from rubella in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine postpartum allows the body to develop immunity without posing any risk to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Option B is incorrect because administering the rubella vaccine in the third trimester can potentially expose the developing fetus to the live virus, which is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as there is a preferred timing for rubella immunization in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current pregnancy from rubella exposure.
2. A nurse on a labor unit is admitting a client who reports painful contractions. The nurse determines that the contractions have a duration of 1 minute and a frequency of 3 minutes. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: fetal heart rate 130/min, maternal heart rate 128/min, and maternal blood pressure 92/54 mm Hg. Which of the following is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Notify the provider of the findings.
- B. Position the client with one hip elevated.
- C. Ask the client if she needs pain medication.
- D. Have the client void.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse in this situation is to position the client with one hip elevated. This position can help improve blood flow to the placenta and stabilize blood pressure, which is crucial for both the client and the fetus during labor. It can also help optimize fetal oxygenation by improving circulation. Notifying the provider of the findings may be necessary, but ensuring proper positioning of the client takes precedence to address the immediate physiological needs. Asking the client about pain medication or having the client void are important interventions but are not the priority in this scenario where the client is experiencing painful contractions and has low blood pressure.
3. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
- B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
- C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
- D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.
4. A client who is 12 hours postpartum has a fundus located two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, deviated to the right of the midline, and less firm than previously noted. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
- B. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.
- C. Obtain a prescription for IV oxytocin.
- D. Administer methylergonovine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's fundus findings indicate a distended bladder, which can lead to uterine atony. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void is essential as a distended bladder can inhibit the uterus from contracting normally. This action can help the uterus contract effectively and prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage. Placing the client in a side-lying position, obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin, or administering methylergonovine are not the priority actions in this situation. Placing the client in a side-lying position might be indicated for fundal displacement, but it is not the priority here. Obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin and administering methylergonovine are interventions for managing uterine atony, which is not the primary issue in this case; the priority is addressing the distended bladder.
5. A client reports unrelieved episiotomy pain 8 hours following a vaginal birth. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply an ice pack to the affected area.
- B. Offer a warm sitz bath.
- C. Provide a squeeze bottle of antiseptic solution.
- D. Place a hot pack on the perineum.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply an ice pack to the affected area. Ice packs help reduce swelling, inflammation, and provide pain relief post-episiotomy. Applying heat, as in a hot pack or warm sitz bath, can increase swelling and discomfort. Providing antiseptic solution in a squeeze bottle is not the first-line intervention for managing episiotomy pain, as the priority is pain relief and comfort.
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