a nurse is caring for a client during the first trimester of pregnancy after reviewing the clients blood work the nurse notices she does not have immu a nurse is caring for a client during the first trimester of pregnancy after reviewing the clients blood work the nurse notices she does not have immu
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored

1. A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella immunization is recommended shortly after giving birth for a pregnant individual who lacks immunity. This timing ensures the client is protected from rubella in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine postpartum allows the body to develop immunity without posing any risk to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Option B is incorrect because administering the rubella vaccine in the third trimester can potentially expose the developing fetus to the live virus, which is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as there is a preferred timing for rubella immunization in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current pregnancy from rubella exposure.

2. A client has a new prescription for allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing fluid intake is essential when taking allopurinol to prevent the formation of kidney stones. Allopurinol can increase the levels of uric acid in the body, which can lead to kidney stone formation. By increasing fluid intake, the client can help flush out excess uric acid and prevent the development of kidney stones. It is important to drink plenty of water throughout the day to maintain adequate hydration and reduce the risk of kidney stone formation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking allopurinol with food or in the morning does not specifically relate to preventing kidney stone formation. Avoiding dairy products is not a standard recommendation when taking allopurinol.

3. Which type of diabetes mellitus (DM) is most likely the result of heterogeneous risk factors, making it preventable?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type 2 diabetes mellitus is most likely the result of heterogeneous risk factors, such as lifestyle choices and genetics, making it preventable. Type 1 diabetes, on the other hand, is an autoimmune condition that is not preventable. Gestational diabetes occurs during pregnancy and is not entirely preventable. Type 1 and 2 diabetes are distinct conditions, with Type 2 being the type associated with preventable risk factors.

4. When determining whether resources were maximized in implementing Ligtas Tigdas, what is being evaluated?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Efficiency is the correct answer because it assesses whether the desired outcomes were achieved with the least amount of resources expended. In the context of Ligtas Tigdas, evaluating efficiency would involve determining if the program goals were met in a cost-effective manner, optimizing the use of resources to achieve the best results.

5. A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia due to its effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for any signs of slowing down, as it can indicate toxicity and potentially lead to serious complications. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and insomnia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Hypertension is more commonly associated with other conditions or medications, hyperglycemia can be seen in conditions like diabetes or certain medications, and insomnia is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity.

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