a nurse is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has stomatitis which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has stomatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Red, open sores in the mouth. Stomatitis, a common side effect of chemotherapy, presents with red, open sores in the mouth, which can be painful and increase the risk of infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because stomatitis typically does not manifest as dry, cracked lips, bleeding gums, or foul-smelling breath.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

3. A client is prescribed digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. In this case, the nurse should administer the digoxin without any modifications. Lowering the dose (Choice B) may not be necessary if the potassium level is not critically low. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is important but should not delay the administration of digoxin. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) is not the initial action to take unless the potassium levels become severely low and life-threatening.

4. A patient is receiving discharge teaching for esophageal cancer and starting radiation therapy. What instruction should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient starting radiation therapy for esophageal cancer is to wear clothing over the area of radiation treatment. This helps to prevent irritation and protect the skin. Removing dye markings after each treatment (choice A) is unnecessary and not typically part of the patient's self-care. Applying a warm compress (choice B) can exacerbate skin irritation caused by radiation. Using a washcloth to bathe the treatment area (choice D) can potentially irritate the skin further, making it important to avoid.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.

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