ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has stomatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Dry, cracked lips
- B. Bleeding gums
- C. Foul-smelling breath
- D. Red, open sores in the mouth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Red, open sores in the mouth. Stomatitis, a common side effect of chemotherapy, presents with red, open sores in the mouth, which can be painful and increase the risk of infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because stomatitis typically does not manifest as dry, cracked lips, bleeding gums, or foul-smelling breath.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client with diabetes mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests is an indicator of long-term disease management?
- A. Postprandial blood glucose
- B. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)
- C. Glucose tolerance test
- D. Fasting blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). The glycosylated hemoglobin test measures average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing an indication of long-term glycemic control in clients with diabetes. Choice A, postprandial blood glucose, reflects blood sugar levels after a meal and does not provide a long-term view. Choice C, glucose tolerance test, evaluates the body's ability to process sugar but does not offer a continuous assessment like the HbA1c test. Choice D, fasting blood glucose, measures blood sugar levels after a period of fasting, which is more indicative of immediate glycemic status rather than long-term management.
3. A client is prescribed tramadol for pain management. Which of the following should the nurse educate the client about?
- A. It is a non-opioid analgesic
- B. It can cause sedation
- C. It has no risk for dependence
- D. It can be taken as needed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tramadol can cause sedation, so the nurse should educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because tramadol is actually an opioid analgesic. Choice C is incorrect as tramadol does carry a risk for dependence, especially with prolonged use. Choice D is not entirely accurate as tramadol is usually prescribed on a scheduled basis rather than as needed.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease (PUD) and is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take sucralfate with an antacid.
- B. Take sucralfate 1 hour before meals.
- C. Take sucralfate with food.
- D. Take sucralfate at bedtime only.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to form a protective barrier over the ulcer, enhancing healing. Choice A is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with an antacid. Choice C is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken at bedtime only; it is best absorbed on an empty stomach.
5. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being educated about their diet by a nurse. Which of the following food selections indicates that the client understands the teaching?
- A. A sandwich and a milkshake
- B. Rice with black beans
- C. Cottage cheese and tuna on lettuce
- D. A three-egg omelet with low-sodium ham
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rice with black beans. Clients with hepatic encephalopathy should limit protein intake to prevent the buildup of ammonia. Plant-based proteins are preferred over animal-based proteins in this condition. Rice with black beans provides a good balance of nutrients and is a suitable choice for a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they contain animal-based proteins, which should be limited in clients with hepatic encephalopathy.
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