a nurse is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has stomatitis which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has stomatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Red, open sores in the mouth. Stomatitis, a common side effect of chemotherapy, presents with red, open sores in the mouth, which can be painful and increase the risk of infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because stomatitis typically does not manifest as dry, cracked lips, bleeding gums, or foul-smelling breath.

2. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

3. A nurse in an urgent-care clinic is collecting admission history from a client who is 16 weeks gestation and has bacterial vaginosis. The nurse should recognize that which of the following clinical findings are associated with this infection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bacterial vaginosis often presents with a profuse, milky white discharge and a characteristic fishy odor, without significant inflammation, hematuria, or fever. Choice A, frequency, and dysuria are more indicative of a urinary tract infection. Choice C, hematuria, is associated with conditions like urinary tract infections or kidney problems. Choice D, low-grade fever, is not a typical symptom of bacterial vaginosis.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anaphylaxis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypotension is a critical sign of anaphylaxis. During anaphylaxis, there is a widespread vasodilation leading to a drop in blood pressure, which manifests as hypotension. This can be accompanied by other symptoms such as swelling, difficulty breathing, hives, and itching. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with anaphylaxis; instead, tachycardia is more common due to the body's response to the allergic reaction. Increased appetite (choice C) is unrelated to anaphylaxis, as individuals experiencing anaphylaxis often feel unwell and may have nausea or vomiting. Decreased respiratory rate (choice D) is also not a typical finding in anaphylaxis; instead, respiratory distress and wheezing are more commonly observed.

5. A nurse is admitting a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Which of the following types of isolation precautions should the nurse initiate for the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Airborne. Tuberculosis is spread through small droplets that remain airborne for longer periods, hence requiring airborne precautions. Choice A - Contact precautions are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice B - Droplet precautions are for diseases transmitted by large respiratory droplets that can travel short distances. Choice C - Protective isolation is not necessary for tuberculosis, as it is not spread through contact with the client.

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