Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has stomatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Dry, cracked lips
• B. Bleeding gums
• C. Foul-smelling breath
• D. Red, open sores in the mouth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Red, open sores in the mouth. Stomatitis, a common side effect of chemotherapy, presents with red, open sores in the mouth, which can be painful and increase the risk of infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because stomatitis typically does not manifest as dry, cracked lips, bleeding gums, or foul-smelling breath.

2. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. Which action should the nurse take when toxicity occurs?

• A. Position the client supine
• B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5%
• C. Administer calcium gluconate IV
• D. Administer methylergonovine IM

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When toxicity from magnesium sulfate occurs, the nurse should administer calcium gluconate IV as it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Positioning the client supine may not address the toxicity issue. Administering dextrose 5% is not the appropriate intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage and is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

3. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

• A. Increased blood pressure
• B. Pulse deficit
• C. Normal heart rate
• D. Elevated oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

4. A client is being taught about the use of nitroglycerin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Take it with food
• B. Place the tablet under the tongue
• C. It can be stored in the refrigerator
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue. Nitroglycerin tablets are meant for sublingual absorption during angina episodes to provide quick relief. Option A is incorrect because nitroglycerin should not be taken with food. Option C is incorrect as nitroglycerin should be stored in a cool, dark place, not in the refrigerator. Option D is incorrect because nitroglycerin can have side effects, including headaches, dizziness, and low blood pressure.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse do before administration?

• A. Check potassium levels
• B. Assess blood glucose levels
• C. Monitor respiratory rate
• D. Administer with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check potassium levels before administering furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential complications related to electrolyte imbalance. Assessing blood glucose levels (choice B) is not directly related to furosemide administration. Monitoring respiratory rate (choice C) is important in certain situations, but it is not the priority before administering furosemide. Administering furosemide with food (choice D) is not a requirement as it can be administered regardless of meals.

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