Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has stomatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Dry, cracked lips
• B. Bleeding gums
• C. Foul-smelling breath
• D. Red, open sores in the mouth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Red, open sores in the mouth. Stomatitis, a common side effect of chemotherapy, presents with red, open sores in the mouth, which can be painful and increase the risk of infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because stomatitis typically does not manifest as dry, cracked lips, bleeding gums, or foul-smelling breath.

2. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. The nurse should include a severe allergy to which of the following medications as a contraindication to ceftriaxone?

• A. Gentamicin
• B. Clindamycin
• C. Piperacillin
• D. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin, and individuals with a penicillin allergy (such as Piperacillin) may have cross-sensitivity, making it contraindicated. Gentamicin (Choice A) belongs to the aminoglycoside class, not related to cephalosporins. Clindamycin (Choice B) is a lincosamide antibiotic and is not typically associated with cross-allergies to cephalosporins. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Choice D) is a sulfonamide antibiotic, also not directly related to ceftriaxone.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

• A. Dehydration
• B. Urinary incontinence
• C. Poor nutrition
• D. Poor tissue perfusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.

4. A nurse is caring for a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the mother to breastfeed the newborn
• B. Gavage feed 60 mL (2 oz) of glucose water
• C. Administer 10 mL of D5W via IV
• D. Recheck the glucose level in 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the mother to breastfeed the newborn is the most appropriate action in this scenario. Breastfeeding can quickly raise blood glucose levels in newborns. A blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL is often acceptable in newborns, but close monitoring is necessary. Gavage feeding with glucose water or administering D5W via IV may not be necessary at this point and could lead to potential risks of overfeeding or hypoglycemia. Rechecking the glucose level in 2 hours may delay necessary intervention, as breastfeeding can promptly address the low blood glucose levels.

5. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum?

• A. Encourage high-calorie meals
• B. Administer intravenous fluids
• C. Provide frequent small meals
• D. Limit fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous fluids. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe, persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. The priority intervention is to administer intravenous fluids to maintain hydration. Encouraging high-calorie meals (Choice A) may exacerbate symptoms due to increased gastric stimulation. Providing frequent small meals (Choice C) may not be effective in severe cases where continuous vomiting occurs. Limiting fluid intake (Choice D) is contraindicated in hyperemesis gravidarum as dehydration is a significant concern.

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