ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has stomatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Dry, cracked lips
- B. Bleeding gums
- C. Foul-smelling breath
- D. Red, open sores in the mouth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Red, open sores in the mouth. Stomatitis, a common side effect of chemotherapy, presents with red, open sores in the mouth, which can be painful and increase the risk of infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because stomatitis typically does not manifest as dry, cracked lips, bleeding gums, or foul-smelling breath.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority?
- A. Paradoxical pulse
- B. Dependent edema
- C. Pericardial friction rub
- D. Substernal chest pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Paradoxical pulse. Paradoxical pulse, which is a significant drop in systolic blood pressure during inspiration, indicates cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis. This finding requires immediate attention as it suggests potential compromised cardiac function. Choices B, C, and D are associated with pericarditis but do not indicate the same level of urgency as paradoxical pulse.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Proteinuria
- C. Nasal congestion
- D. Visual disturbances
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Gentamicin is known to cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect. Proteinuria, which is the presence of excess proteins in the urine, may indicate kidney damage from the medication. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients receiving gentamicin. Choice A, hypoglycemia, is not a typical adverse effect of gentamicin. Choices C and D, nasal congestion and visual disturbances, are not commonly associated with gentamicin use or its adverse effects.
4. A client who is Rh-negative is being taught about Rh (D) immune globulin by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. If my partner is Rh-negative, I will not receive the shot.
- B. I will receive the shot after delivery if my baby is Rh-negative.
- C. I should not receive any immunizations for 3 months after the shot.
- D. This shot may be given after birth to protect future pregnancies.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is the correct answer because it reflects an understanding of Rh immune globulin administration. Rh immune globulin is given after delivery to prevent sensitization in future pregnancies, particularly if the baby is Rh-positive. Choice A is incorrect because Rh-negative partners do not affect the need for Rh immune globulin. Choice B is incorrect as Rh immune globulin is given if the baby is Rh-positive, not Rh-negative. Choice C is incorrect; there is no requirement to avoid immunizations after receiving Rh immune globulin.
5. A client is prescribed propranolol. Which of the following client history findings would require the nurse to clarify this medication prescription?
- A. Asthma
- B. Hypertension
- C. Tachydysrhythmias
- D. Urolithiasis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, should be avoided in clients with asthma as it can cause bronchoconstriction due to its beta2-blocking effects. Therefore, a client history finding of asthma would require the nurse to clarify this medication prescription. Hypertension, tachydysrhythmias, and urolithiasis are not contraindications for propranolol use, making them incorrect choices. For clients with asthma, a beta1 selective blocker would be preferred to avoid exacerbating bronchoconstriction.
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