ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has stomatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Dry, cracked lips
- B. Bleeding gums
- C. Foul-smelling breath
- D. Red, open sores in the mouth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Red, open sores in the mouth. Stomatitis, a common side effect of chemotherapy, presents with red, open sores in the mouth, which can be painful and increase the risk of infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because stomatitis typically does not manifest as dry, cracked lips, bleeding gums, or foul-smelling breath.
2. A nurse is monitoring a client who has been receiving intermittent enteral feedings. What should the nurse identify as an intolerance to the feeding?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Nausea
- C. Weight gain
- D. Regular bowel movements
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nausea is a common sign of intolerance to enteral feedings. When a client experiences nausea, it can indicate difficulty in tolerating the feeding formula. This intolerance may also manifest as vomiting and dumping syndrome. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight gain, and regular bowel movements are not typical signs of intolerance to enteral feedings.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4 mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 10 mg
- B. 20 mg
- C. 30 mg
- D. 40 mg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the correct dose, first, convert the toddler's weight from pounds to kilograms: 22 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 10 kg. Next, multiply the weight in kilograms by the dosage: 4 mg/kg x 10 kg = 40 mg/day. Since the total daily dose is divided into 2 equal doses, each dose would be 20 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 mg. Choice A (10 mg) is incorrect because it does not account for the correct weight-based dosage. Choice C (30 mg) and Choice D (40 mg) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the dose based on the weight of the toddler and the prescribed dosage per kg.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig’s sign?
- A. After stroking the lateral area of the foot, the client’s toes contract and draw together
- B. After hip flexion, the client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain
- C. The client’s voluntary movement is not coordinated
- D. The client reports pain and stiffness when flexing their neck
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A positive Kernig’s sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding indicates meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig’s sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, choice C refers to coordination issues, and choice D describes neck pain and stiffness, which are not specific to Kernig’s sign.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about dietary modifications to help control blood pressure. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend as the best choice for the client to include in their diet?
- A. 1 packet of reconstituted dry onion soup
- B. 3 oz of lean cured ham
- C. 3 oz of chicken breast
- D. 1/2 cup of canned baked beans
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A low sodium diet is recommended for a client who has hypertension. Therefore, the nurse should recommend 3 oz of chicken breast as the best choice for the client's diet because it contains 30 – 90 mg of sodium. Choice A, 1 packet of reconstituted dry onion soup, and Choice B, 3 oz of lean cured ham, are high in sodium content, which is not suitable for a client with hypertension. Choice D, 1/2 cup of canned baked beans, is also high in sodium, making it a less suitable choice compared to 3 oz of chicken breast.
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