Nursing Elites

1. A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Have the client sit upright on the bed with legs crossed.
• B. Administer a 500 mL bolus of lactated Ringer's solution prior to induction.
• C. Inform the client that the anesthetic effect will last for approximately 2 hours.
• D. Obtain a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to induction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Obtaining a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to epidural analgesia is crucial to establish a baseline for fetal heart rate and uterine activity. This baseline helps in monitoring fetal well-being during labor and assessing the effect of analgesia on the baby. It enables the healthcare team to identify any changes in the fetal heart rate pattern and uterine contractions, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not necessary for epidural placement, administering a bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not typically done before epidural analgesia, and the duration of the anesthetic effect varies and is not accurately 2 hours.

2. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. It's a minor inconvenience, which you should ignore.
• B. In most cases it only lasts until the 12th week, but it will continue if you have poor bladder tone.
• C. There is no way to predict how long it will last in each individual client.
• D. It occurs during the first trimester and near the end of the pregnancy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Urinary frequency is common during the first trimester and again at the end of pregnancy when the baby drops into the pelvis, putting pressure on the bladder.

3. When reinforcing discharge teaching to the parents of a newborn regarding circumcision care, which statement made by a parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. The circumcision will heal within a couple of days.
• B. I should not remove the yellow mucus that will form.
• C. I will clean the penis with each diaper change.
• D. I will give him a tub bath within a couple of days.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because cleaning the penis with each diaper change is essential for preventing infection and promoting healing after circumcision. This practice helps maintain good hygiene and reduces the risk of complications. Removing the yellow mucus or giving a tub bath too soon can interfere with the healing process and increase the likelihood of infection. Choice A is incorrect because circumcision healing usually takes about a week or more, not just a couple of days. Choice B is incorrect because parents should gently clean the area, including removing any discharge or debris as part of proper care. Choice D is incorrect because tub baths should be avoided until the circumcision is fully healed to prevent infection.

4. A client is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this test. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. This test screens for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus.
• B. It assesses various markers of fetal well-being.
• C. This test identifies an Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus.
• D. It is a screening test for spinal defects in the fetus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) test is performed around 15-18 weeks of gestation to screen for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus, not to assess fetal lung maturity, markers of fetal well-being, or Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the purpose of the MSAFP test. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the primary goal of this screening test.

5. A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)

• A. Decreased fetal movement
• B. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
• C. Postmaturity
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A contraction stress test (CST) is performed to assess how the fetus responds to the stress of contractions. Indications for this test include decreased fetal movement, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), and postmaturity. These conditions may warrant the need for a CST to evaluate fetal well-being and determine appropriate management. Therefore, all of the above options are correct indications for a contraction stress test. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all valid reasons for performing a CST in a pregnant client.

Similar Questions