Nursing Elites

1. A newborn is noted to have secretions bubbling out of the nose and mouth after delivery. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Suction the nose with a bulb syringe.
• B. Suction the mouth with a bulb syringe.
• C. Use a suction catheter with low negative pressure.
• D. Turn the newborn on their side.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to suction the mouth with a bulb syringe. Suctioning the mouth first is crucial to prevent aspiration and ensure the airway is clear, which takes precedence over suctioning the nose. This intervention helps maintain a patent airway and promotes adequate breathing in the newborn. Using a suction catheter with low negative pressure may not be appropriate as the newborn needs a gentle suction method like a bulb syringe. Turning the newborn on their side is important if there is a risk of aspiration, but clearing the mouth of secretions should be the priority to establish a clear airway.

2. When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring with a newly licensed nurse, which statement should a nurse include?

• A. Count the fetal heart rate for 15 seconds to determine the baseline.
• B. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor.
• C. Count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes.
• D. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring, it is crucial to count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes. This practice allows for the assessment of variations in the fetal heart rate pattern associated with uterine contractions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate after contractions provides valuable insights into fetal well-being and potential distress. Option A is incorrect because determining the baseline involves assessing the fetal heart rate over a more extended period. Option B is incorrect as auscultation every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor is too frequent for intermittent monitoring. Option D is incorrect as auscultating the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor is too infrequent for proper monitoring of fetal well-being.

3. A client is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on fetal lung maturity. Which finding indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?

• A. Absence of Phosphatidylglycerol (PG)
• B. Biophysical profile score of 8
• C. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1
• D. Reactive nonstress test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An L/S ratio of 2:1 indicates fetal lung maturity, as it signifies the presence of surfactant in the amniotic fluid, which helps with lung expansion and prevents collapse at the end of expiration. The absence of PG indicates immaturity of the fetal lungs, as PG appears in the amniotic fluid during the later stages of lung maturation. Biophysical profile scores and nonstress tests are assessments of fetal well-being and do not directly indicate fetal lung maturity. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.

4. A nurse is assisting the nurse manager with an educational session about ways to prevent TORCH infections during pregnancy with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements by one of the session participants indicates understanding?

• A. Seeking an immunization against rubella early in pregnancy.
• B. Receiving prophylactic treatment for cytomegalovirus if detected during pregnancy.
• C. Clients should avoid crowded places during pregnancy.
• D. Clients should avoid consuming undercooked meat while pregnant.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. To prevent TORCH infections during pregnancy, it is essential for clients to avoid consuming undercooked meat, as it can be a potential source of toxoplasmosis. This infection, along with others in the TORCH group, can pose risks to the fetus, making it crucial for pregnant individuals to follow proper food safety practices. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because seeking an immunization against rubella, receiving prophylactic treatment for cytomegalovirus, and avoiding crowded places are not directly related to preventing TORCH infections through food safety measures.

5. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for a nonstress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You will receive IV fluid before this test.
• B. The procedure will take approximately 10 to 15 minutes.
• C. You will be offered orange juice to drink during the test.
• D. You will need to sign an informed consent form before each test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching is that the client will be offered orange juice to drink during the nonstress test. This is because offering the client orange juice, or another beverage high in glucose, will help stimulate the fetus during the procedure, aiding in obtaining accurate results. Choice A is incorrect because IV fluid is not typically administered before a nonstress test. Choice B is incorrect as the procedure usually takes around 20 to 40 minutes. Choice D is incorrect as informed consent is typically obtained once for the procedure, not before each individual test.

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