Nursing Elites

1. A client who is breastfeeding and has mastitis is receiving teaching from the nurse. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Limit the amount of time the infant nurses on each breast.
• B. Nurse the infant only on the unaffected breast until resolved.
• C. Completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump.
• D. Wear a tight-fitting bra until lactation has ceased.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump to prevent milk stasis, which can exacerbate mastitis. By ensuring proper drainage of the affected breast, the client can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because limiting feeding time can lead to inadequate drainage, potentially worsening the condition. Choice B is incorrect as it can cause engorgement in the unaffected breast, leading to further complications. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a tight-fitting bra can worsen symptoms by putting pressure on the affected breast, hindering proper drainage and exacerbating mastitis.

2. A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Reduced menstrual flow
• B. Breast tenderness
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a symptom that can indicate a serious side effect of oral contraceptives, such as a potential blood clot in the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with serious side effects of oral contraceptives and are considered normal or common side effects that do not require urgent medical attention.

3. A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?

• A. Placenta previa
• B. Prolapsed cord
• C. Incompetent cervix
• D. Abruptio placentae

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding are indicative of abruptio placentae, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent potential complications for both the client and the fetus. Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, not sudden abdominal pain. Prolapsed cord presents with visible umbilical cord protruding from the vagina and is not associated with abruptio placentae symptoms. Incompetent cervix typically manifests as painless cervical dilation in the second trimester, not sudden abdominal pain and bleeding as seen in abruptio placentae.

4. When developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy, which of the following statements should be included?

• A. Consume three to four servings of dairy each day.
• B. Increase daily caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories.
• C. Limit daily sodium intake to less than 1 gram.
• D. Increase protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement to include when developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy is to consume three to four servings of dairy each day. Adequate calcium intake is crucial for bone development during pregnancy and helps prevent complications related to inadequate calcium intake. Increasing daily caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories (Choice B) is not necessary during the third trimester; excessive caloric intake can lead to unnecessary weight gain. Limiting daily sodium intake to less than 1 gram (Choice C) is not suitable during pregnancy, as some sodium intake is necessary for maintaining fluid balance. Increasing protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day (Choice D) is important during pregnancy, but the emphasis in this case should be on calcium from dairy sources for bone development.

5. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
• B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
• D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

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