ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. When caring for a client suspected of having hyperemesis gravidarum, which finding is a manifestation of this condition?
- A. Hgb 12.2 g/dL
- B. Urine ketones present
- C. Alanine aminotransferase 20 IU/L
- D. Blood glucose 114 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine ketones present. The presence of urine ketones indicates dehydration, which is a common manifestation of hyperemesis gravidarum. Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances due to dehydration. Monitoring for ketonuria helps assess the degree of dehydration in clients with this condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin level, alanine aminotransferase level, and blood glucose level are not specific manifestations of hyperemesis gravidarum. While these laboratory values may be abnormal in some cases, they are not typically used to diagnose or assess the condition.
2. A client is receiving postpartum discharge teaching after being vaccinated for varicella due to lack of immunity. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
- A. I will need a second vaccination at my postpartum visit.
- B. I need a second vaccination at my postpartum visit.
- C. I was given the vaccine to protect myself from varicella.
- D. I will be tested in 3 months to confirm my immunity status.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client needs a second varicella vaccination at the postpartum visit to ensure immunity. Option A is incorrect as it implies a future need for a second vaccination without a clear action plan. Option C is incorrect as the varicella vaccine is primarily for the client's protection, not others. Option D is not the appropriate action as waiting to be tested for immunity delays the necessary second vaccination.
3. A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?
- A. Shortly after giving birth
- B. In the third trimester
- C. Immediately
- D. During the next attempt to get pregnant
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rubella immunization is recommended shortly after giving birth for a pregnant individual who lacks immunity. This timing ensures the client is protected from rubella in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine postpartum allows the body to develop immunity without posing any risk to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Option B is incorrect because administering the rubella vaccine in the third trimester can potentially expose the developing fetus to the live virus, which is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as there is a preferred timing for rubella immunization in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current pregnancy from rubella exposure.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer prophylactic eye ointment to a newborn to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering?
- A. Ofloxacin
- B. Nystatin
- C. Erythromycin
- D. Ceftriaxone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Erythromycin eye ointment is the medication of choice for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum, an eye infection in newborns caused by exposure to gonorrhea or chlamydia during birth. Erythromycin helps prevent the transmission of these bacteria from the mother to the baby during delivery, protecting the newborn's eyes from potential infection. Ofloxacin, Nystatin, and Ceftriaxone are not indicated for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum. Ofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic used for treating eye infections in adults, Nystatin is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, and Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin antibiotic used for various bacterial infections, but not for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum.
5. A parent of a newborn is being taught about crib safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will place my baby on his stomach when he is sleeping.
- B. I should remove extra blankets from my baby's crib.
- C. I should pad the mattress in my baby's crib so that he will be more comfortable when he sleeps.
- D. I should place my baby's crib next to the heater to keep him warm during the winter.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Removing extra blankets from the crib is essential to prevent suffocation and reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Extra blankets can pose a suffocation hazard to the baby during sleep. It is recommended to keep the crib free from loose bedding, pillows, and other soft items to provide a safe sleep environment for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Placing the baby on his stomach (Choice A) increases the risk of SIDS. Padding the mattress (Choice C) can also pose a suffocation risk, and placing the crib next to a heater (Choice D) can lead to overheating, which is associated with an increased risk of SIDS.
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