Nursing Elites

1. A client with multiple sclerosis reports diplopia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to focus on a distant object.
• B. Apply a warm compress to the client’s eyes.
• C. Recommend alternating eye patches during the day.
• D. Administer artificial tears.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with multiple sclerosis reporting diplopia is to recommend alternating eye patches during the day. This strategy can help relieve diplopia (double vision) by allowing each eye to rest alternately, reducing eye strain. Encouraging the client to focus on a distant object (Choice A) is not an appropriate intervention for diplopia in this case. Applying a warm compress to the client's eyes (Choice B) and administering artificial tears (Choice D) are not effective interventions for diplopia associated with multiple sclerosis.

2. During a change-of-shift assessment, a nurse is evaluating four clients. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider first?

• A. Client with cystic fibrosis who has a thick productive cough and reports thirst
• B. Client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused
• C. Client with diabetes mellitus who has a morning fasting glucose of 185 mg/dL
• D. Client with sickle cell anemia who reports pain 15 minutes after receiving analgesic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should report the client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused to the provider first. Lethargy and confusion in a client with gastroenteritis may indicate dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, both of which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. The other options indicate important assessments that require intervention but do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the client with signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.

3. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

• A. 4
• B. 7 (comatose)
• C. 9
• D. 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?

• A. Tidaling with spontaneous respirations
• B. Drainage collection chamber is 1/3 full
• C. 1 cm of water present in the water seal chamber
• D. Suction chamber pressure of -20 cm H2O

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. There should be 2 cm of water in the water seal chamber of the chest tube system. A level of 1 cm may indicate a leak or compromised functionality that requires intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not findings that necessarily require immediate intervention. Tidaling with spontaneous respirations is an expected finding, the drainage collection chamber being 1/3 full is within normal limits, and a suction chamber pressure of -20 cm H2O indicates appropriate suction for chest drainage.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has end-stage liver disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Elevated albumin
• B. Elevated ammonia
• C. Decreased total bilirubin
• D. Decreased prothrombin time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In end-stage liver disease, the liver's inability to convert ammonia into urea leads to elevated ammonia levels. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Elevated albumin (Choice A) is not typically seen in end-stage liver disease as liver dysfunction often leads to decreased albumin levels. Decreased total bilirubin (Choice C) is unlikely in end-stage liver disease, as bilirubin levels tend to be elevated due to impaired liver function. Decreased prothrombin time (Choice D) is also not expected in end-stage liver disease, as impaired liver function results in prolonged prothrombin time.

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