Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will notify my doctor if I develop a cough.
• B. I will avoid using salt substitutes.
• C. I will increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients taking lisinopril should avoid potassium-rich foods because ACE inhibitors can increase potassium levels, potentially leading to hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements. Clients should notify their doctor if they develop a cough as it can indicate a potential side effect of lisinopril. Avoiding salt substitutes is important as they may contain potassium chloride, which can also raise potassium levels. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential when taking an antihypertensive medication like lisinopril.

2. A client presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• B. Rheumatoid factor
• C. Antinuclear antibody
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rheumatoid factor is a specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis. It is often elevated in clients with this autoimmune condition, helping to confirm the diagnosis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and antinuclear antibody tests can be supportive but are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum calcium levels are not typically used to confirm this diagnosis.

3. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• B. Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
• C. Polyuria
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.

4. A client has a new prescription for oxcarbazepine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Serum sodium levels
• C. Blood glucose
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum sodium levels. Oxcarbazepine can lead to hyponatremia, making it crucial to monitor serum sodium levels. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with oxcarbazepine use. Blood glucose (choice C) monitoring is more relevant in medications affecting blood sugar levels. Heart rate (choice D) is not directly impacted by oxcarbazepine.

5. A client is being taught about the use of levothyroxine. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It should be taken on an empty stomach
• B. Monitor for signs of hyperthyroidism
• C. It is a pain reliever
• D. It should be taken in the morning

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When educating a client about levothyroxine, it is important to emphasize the need to monitor for signs of hyperthyroidism. Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach, preferably in the morning, to maximize its absorption. Choice A is incorrect as it should not be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as levothyroxine is not a pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect as levothyroxine is usually taken in the morning.

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