a client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform fundal massage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contractions, which is the initial action to reduce postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Checking vital signs (choice C) is important but not the priority when active bleeding is present. Administering oxytocin IV (choice B) may be needed but is not the priority action. Encouraging the client to void (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of postpartum hemorrhage and should not be the priority.

2. A client with burn injuries covering their upper body is concerned about their altered appearance. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should encourage the client to attend a support group for individuals with burn injuries. Support groups can provide emotional support, promote acceptance of altered appearance, and help the client cope with the changes. Choice A is incorrect because it may not address the client's emotional needs. Choice B is incorrect as suggesting a timeline for cosmetic surgery may not be appropriate without considering the client's physical and emotional readiness. Choice C is incorrect as reconstructive surgery may not completely restore the client's previous appearance and may set unrealistic expectations.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

4. A nurse is planning care for an adolescent client with chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, it is essential to restrict protein intake to the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) to reduce the accumulation of waste products that the kidneys can no longer effectively eliminate. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in chronic renal failure, high calcium, high potassium, and increased fluid intake can further strain the kidneys and worsen the condition.

5. While providing education about the use of lorazepam, which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause dependency.' Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine known to cause dependency, so it is crucial for clients to be informed about this potential risk. Choice B is incorrect as combining lorazepam with alcohol can lead to increased sedation and other adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect because lorazepam, like any medication, can have side effects such as drowsiness, dizziness, or confusion. Choice D is also incorrect as lorazepam is a sedative-hypnotic medication, not a stimulant.

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