Nursing Elites

1. A home health nurse is carefully planning care for a client with Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Place a daily calendar in the kitchen
• B. Replace buttoned clothing with zippered items
• C. Replace carpet with hardwood floors
• D. Create variation in the daily routine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing a daily calendar in the kitchen is essential for clients with Alzheimer's disease as it helps in orienting them to time and day, providing structure, and minimizing confusion in their daily routine. This action supports cognitive function and independence. Choice B is incorrect as it does not directly address cognitive orientation. Choice C is not a priority in the care plan and may not significantly impact the client's daily functioning. Choice D, creating variation in the daily routine, can actually increase confusion and anxiety in clients with Alzheimer's disease who thrive on predictability and structure.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a long arm cast. Which of the following findings indicates a moderate complication when assessing for acute compartment syndrome?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Petechiae
• C. Change in mental status
• D. Edema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Edema is a common sign of acute compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, requiring immediate intervention. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is more indicative of a respiratory issue rather than acute compartment syndrome. Petechiae (Choice B) are pinpoint, round spots that appear on the skin due to bleeding under the skin and are not typically associated with acute compartment syndrome. Change in mental status (Choice C) is more suggestive of neurological issues rather than acute compartment syndrome.

3. A nurse receives a change-of-shift report. Which of the following clients should the nurse attend to first?

• A. A client who reports tingling in the fingers following a thyroidectomy
• B. A client who has dark, foul-smelling urine with a urine output of 320 mL in the last 8 hr
• C. A client who is in a long leg cast and reports cool feet bilaterally
• D. A client who has a productive cough and an oral temperature of 36°C (96.8°F)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cool feet bilaterally in a client with a long leg cast may indicate compromised circulation, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions. Tingling in the fingers following a thyroidectomy may indicate hypocalcemia but does not require immediate attention. Dark, foul-smelling urine with decreased urine output indicates a possible urinary tract infection or dehydration but can be addressed after attending to the client with compromised circulation. A productive cough and a normal oral temperature do not suggest an urgent condition compared to compromised circulation in a client with a long leg cast.

4. A nurse is caring for a client receiving a dopamine infusion via a peripheral IV. Which of the following actions should the nurse take if the IV site appears infiltrated?

• A. Stop the infusion.
• B. Slow the infusion.
• C. Apply a warm compress to the site.
• D. Apply a cold compress to the site.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: If infiltration is suspected, the nurse should immediately stop the dopamine infusion to prevent further damage to the surrounding tissue. Choice A is the correct answer because continuing the infusion can lead to tissue damage and compromise the client's care. Slowing the infusion (Choice B) is not sufficient to prevent harm and may still cause damage. Applying a warm compress (Choice C) or a cold compress (Choice D) is not the recommended action for infiltration; stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent complications.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

• A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
• B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
• C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

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