ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A home care nurse is following up with a postpartum client. Which of the following is a risk factor that places this client at risk for postpartum depression?
- A. History of anxiety
- B. Socioeconomic status
- C. Hormonal changes with a rapid decline in estrogen and progesterone
- D. Support from family members
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Postpartum depression can be triggered by various factors, but one of the strongest predictors is a rapid drop in estrogen and progesterone levels following childbirth. These hormonal changes can affect mood regulation, making some women more vulnerable to depression during the postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are not direct risk factors associated with postpartum depression. While a history of anxiety may contribute, it is not as directly linked to the hormonal changes that occur postpartum. Socioeconomic status and support from family members may influence the overall well-being of the mother but are not specific risk factors for postpartum depression.
2. A client newly diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is being taught by a nurse. Which statement indicates that the client understands the teaching?
- A. “I can expect swelling in my hands and on my face.”
- B. “The amount of protein in my blood is high.”
- C. “I might have some pain and gas in my stomach from this condition.”
- D. “I will use a soft bristle toothbrush, so my gums don’t bleed.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: “I can expect swelling in my hands and on my face.” Nephrotic syndrome leads to increased permeability of the glomeruli, resulting in edema, especially in the face and dependent areas. Choice B is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome leads to protein loss in the urine, not an increase in blood protein levels. Choice C is incorrect as stomach pain and gas are not typical symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the teaching about nephrotic syndrome and gum bleeding.
3. A client is found on the floor of their room experiencing a seizure. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse?
- A. Place the client on their side with their head forward
- B. Call for help
- C. Protect the client's head
- D. Restrain the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client on their side with their head forward. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration, which is crucial in managing the client's safety during a seizure. Calling for help is important but ensuring the client's immediate safety by positioning them correctly takes precedence. Protecting the client's head can be done concurrently while positioning the client. Restraint is not appropriate during a seizure as it can lead to injuries and complications.
4. A nurse is teaching a group of assistive personnel (AP) about the expected integumentary changes in older adults. Which should the nurse include?
- A. Increase in elasticity
- B. Decrease in pigmentation
- C. Decrease in elasticity
- D. Increase in moisture levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decrease in elasticity.' As individuals age, they typically experience a decrease in skin elasticity, leading to sagging skin and increased wrinkles. This change in elasticity can contribute to various skin-related issues such as pressure ulcers and delayed wound healing. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because older adults do not experience an increase in elasticity or moisture levels, and while there may be changes in pigmentation, the primary change related to aging in the integumentary system is a decrease in elasticity.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.
- A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
- B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
- C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
- D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.
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