Nursing Elites

1. A home care nurse is following up with a postpartum client. Which of the following is a risk factor that places this client at risk for postpartum depression?

• A. History of anxiety
• B. Socioeconomic status
• C. Hormonal changes with a rapid decline in estrogen and progesterone
• D. Support from family members

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Postpartum depression can be triggered by various factors, but one of the strongest predictors is a rapid drop in estrogen and progesterone levels following childbirth. These hormonal changes can affect mood regulation, making some women more vulnerable to depression during the postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are not direct risk factors associated with postpartum depression. While a history of anxiety may contribute, it is not as directly linked to the hormonal changes that occur postpartum. Socioeconomic status and support from family members may influence the overall well-being of the mother but are not specific risk factors for postpartum depression.

2. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation and notes that the client has gained 5 pounds in one week. Which of the following conditions should the nurse suspect?

• A. Preeclampsia
• B. Gestational diabetes
• C. Anemia
• D. Placenta previa

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preeclampsia. Rapid weight gain, especially in the third trimester, can be a sign of preeclampsia, a condition characterized by hypertension, edema, and proteinuria. This requires immediate medical attention. Choice B, Gestational diabetes, is incorrect because rapid weight gain is not a typical symptom of gestational diabetes. Choice C, Anemia, is incorrect as weight gain is not a common sign of anemia in pregnancy. Choice D, Placenta previa, is also incorrect because weight gain is not a typical symptom of this condition, which involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix.

3. When teaching about safety risks for adolescents, what should be included?

• A. Adolescents are more likely to follow rules
• B. Peer influence to participate in high-risk behaviors can lead to injury
• C. Most injuries occur during sports activities
• D. Adolescents are aware of the dangers of substance use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When educating about safety risks for adolescents, it is crucial to address the impact of peer influence on engaging in high-risk behaviors, which can result in injuries. Choice A is incorrect because adolescents are known to sometimes take risks and not always follow rules. Choice C is incorrect as injuries among adolescents can also happen outside of sports activities. Choice D is incorrect as adolescents may not always be fully aware of the dangers of substance use.

4. A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. INR levels
• B. APTT levels
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heparin therapy requires monitoring of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) to ensure therapeutic levels. APTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to assess the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. Monitoring INR levels is more relevant for assessing warfarin therapy, not heparin. Blood glucose levels are monitored for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting glucose levels. Liver function tests are used to assess liver health and are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

5. A client is at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to increase in their diet?

• A. Yogurt
• B. Apples
• C. Raisins
• D. Cheddar cheese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, which can help prevent or address iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A) and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. While apples (Choice B) are a healthy fruit, they do not contain as much iron as raisins.

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