ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A client with hypokalemia is commonly expected to present with which of the following findings?
- A. Muscle weakness
- B. Nausea
- C. Tingling sensation
- D. Increased thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle weakness. Hypokalemia is characterized by low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness. This occurs because potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and a deficiency can impair muscle strength. Nausea (choice B) is not a typical finding associated with hypokalemia. Tingling sensation (choice C) is more commonly linked to issues like nerve damage or poor blood circulation, rather than hypokalemia. Increased thirst (choice D) is not a direct symptom of hypokalemia; it is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes or dehydration.
2. A nurse is collecting data from a school-age child who has sustained a skull fracture. Which of the following is a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure?
- A. Nausea
- B. Confusion about own name
- C. Rapid pulse
- D. Vomiting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Confusion, especially about one's own name, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure and should be addressed. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms of increased intracranial pressure, but confusion about personal information is a more specific and critical indication that requires immediate attention. Rapid pulse may be a possible response to increased intracranial pressure, but it is not as specific as confusion about own name in this scenario.
3. What is the proper technique for obtaining a blood specimen from a central venous line?
- A. Use sterile gloves and discard the first 10 mL of blood
- B. Flush the line with heparin and then draw the specimen
- C. Draw the specimen and then administer heparin
- D. Use non-sterile gloves to reduce contamination risk
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct technique for obtaining a blood specimen from a central venous line is to use sterile gloves and discard the first 10 mL of blood. This practice helps ensure that the blood sample collected is not contaminated. Choice B is incorrect because flushing the line with heparin before drawing the specimen can contaminate the sample. Choice C is incorrect as administering heparin before drawing the specimen can affect the accuracy of the blood sample. Choice D is incorrect as using non-sterile gloves increases the risk of contamination, which is not recommended when obtaining a blood specimen from a central venous line.
4. During an initial assessment of a client, a nurse notices a discrepancy between the client's current IV infusion and the information received during the shift report. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Complete an incident report and place it in the client's medical record.
- B. Compare the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record.
- C. Contact the charge nurse to see if the prescription was changed.
- D. Submit a written warning for the nurse involved in the incident.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when noticing a discrepancy between the client's current IV infusion and the information received during the shift report is to compare the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record. This step is crucial to ensure the accuracy of the prescribed treatment and to prevent any potential harm to the client. Option A is incorrect because completing an incident report should only be done after verifying the discrepancy. Option C is incorrect as contacting the charge nurse should come after confirming the details. Option D is incorrect as submitting a written warning is not appropriate without verifying the information first.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
- B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
- C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
- D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.
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