ATI LPN
PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
1. A nurse on an acute unit has received a change of shift report for 4 clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who is 1 hr postoperative and has hypoactive bowel sounds.
- B. A client who has a fractured left tibia and pallor in the affected extremity.
- C. A client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses.
- D. A client who has an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because pallor in an extremity after a fracture could indicate compromised circulation, making it a priority for assessment. Choice A is not the priority as hypoactive bowel sounds in a client 1 hr postoperative, while concerning, do not indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C, a client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses, indicates good perfusion and does not require immediate attention. Choice D, a client with an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin, may require further assessment but is not as urgent as the client with potential compromised circulation in choice B.
2. When drawing blood from the diabetic patient for a glycosylated hemoglobin (HBA1c) test, the nurse explains to the woman that the test is used to determine:
- A. The highest glucose level in the past week.
- B. Her insulin levels.
- C. Glucose levels over the past three months.
- D. Her usual fasting glucose level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The glycosylated hemoglobin (HBA1c) test reflects the average blood sugar levels over the past three months. It provides a more comprehensive view of the individual's glucose control compared to a single point-in-time measurement like a fasting glucose level or the highest glucose level in the past week. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on a single high glucose level rather than the overall control over a period. Choice B is incorrect as HBA1c is not a test for insulin levels. Choice D is incorrect as the HBA1c test does not reflect a single fasting glucose level but rather an average over a more extended period.
3. A client is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent aspiration?
- A. Monitor gastric residuals every 4 hours.
- B. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
- C. Check for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding.
- D. Warm the formula to body temperature before feeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring gastric residuals every 4 hours is essential to assess the stomach's ability to empty properly, reducing the risk of aspiration. It helps in determining if the feedings are being tolerated by the client and if adjustments are needed in the feeding regimen. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position helps prevent reflux and aspiration by promoting proper digestion and emptying of the stomach contents. Checking for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding confirms correct tube placement in the stomach. Warming the formula to body temperature before feeding enhances client comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor gastric residuals to prevent aspiration, as it directly assesses the stomach's ability to empty properly and the tolerance of the feedings.
4. The nurse is caring for four clients: Client A, who has emphysema and an oxygen saturation of 94%; Client B, with a postoperative hemoglobin of 8.7 g/dL; Client C, newly admitted with a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L; and Client D, scheduled for an appendectomy with a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Increase Client A's oxygen to 4 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
- B. Determine if Client B has two units of packed cells available in the blood bank.
- C. Ask the dietitian to add a banana to Client C's breakfast tray.
- D. Inform Client D that surgery is likely to be delayed until the infection is treated.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A high white blood cell count, as seen in Client D, indicates infection, which may require postponing surgery to treat the infection adequately. It is crucial to address the underlying infection before proceeding with the appendectomy to prevent complications and ensure a successful surgical outcome.
5. A client who is postpartum has a slightly boggy and displaced fundus to the right. Which of the following actions should the nurse take based on these findings?
- A. Encourage the client to perform Kegel exercises.
- B. Encourage the client to move to the left lateral position.
- C. Ask the client to rate her pain.
- D. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A displaced and boggy fundus in a postpartum client typically indicates a full bladder, which can impede uterine contractions and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void helps ensure the bladder is empty, aiding the fundus to contract and reducing the risk of complications. Encouraging Kegel exercises, changing positions, or assessing pain would not directly address the issue of the boggy fundus caused by a full bladder.
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