Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on an acute unit has received a change of shift report for 4 clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who is 1 hr postoperative and has hypoactive bowel sounds.
• B. A client who has a fractured left tibia and pallor in the affected extremity.
• C. A client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses.
• D. A client who has an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because pallor in an extremity after a fracture could indicate compromised circulation, making it a priority for assessment. Choice A is not the priority as hypoactive bowel sounds in a client 1 hr postoperative, while concerning, do not indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C, a client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses, indicates good perfusion and does not require immediate attention. Choice D, a client with an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin, may require further assessment but is not as urgent as the client with potential compromised circulation in choice B.

2. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with neutropenia?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection and administer antibiotics
• B. Isolate the patient and provide a low-microbial diet
• C. Monitor vital signs and avoid unnecessary invasive procedures
• D. Encourage the patient to engage in social activities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing interventions for a patient with neutropenia include monitoring for signs of infection and administering antibiotics. Neutropenia is characterized by a low neutrophil count, which increases the risk of infections. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt treatment, while administering antibiotics helps prevent or treat any infections that may occur. Isolating the patient and providing a low-microbial diet (Choice B) are not necessary unless the patient develops an active infection. Monitoring vital signs and avoiding unnecessary invasive procedures (Choice C) are important but do not specifically address the increased infection risk in neutropenic patients. Encouraging the patient to engage in social activities (Choice D) is not appropriate for a neutropenic patient due to the risk of exposure to infectious agents.

3. What are the early signs of heart failure in a patient?

• A. Shortness of breath and weight gain
• B. Fatigue and chest pain
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Cough and elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shortness of breath and weight gain. Early signs of heart failure typically manifest as shortness of breath due to fluid accumulation in the lungs and weight gain due to fluid retention in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fatigue and chest pain are symptoms commonly associated with heart conditions but are not specific early signs of heart failure. Nausea and vomiting are not typically early signs of heart failure. Cough can be a symptom of heart failure, but it is usually associated with other symptoms like shortness of breath rather than being an isolated early sign. Elevated blood pressure is not an early sign of heart failure; in fact, heart failure is more commonly associated with low blood pressure.

4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

5. A nurse is implementing a plan of care for a client who is at risk for falls. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

• A. Implement a regular toileting schedule
• B. Encourage the client to wear athletic socks when ambulating
• C. Place all four bed rails in the upright position
• D. Require a family member to remain at the bedside

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Implementing a regular toileting schedule is an appropriate nursing action for a client at risk for falls. This action can help prevent accidents related to rushing to the bathroom. Encouraging the client to wear athletic socks when ambulating (Choice B) is not safe as it can increase the risk of slipping and falling. Placing all four bed rails in the upright position (Choice C) can lead to entrapment or falls when the client tries to get out of bed. Requiring a family member to remain at the bedside (Choice D) may not always be feasible and does not directly address fall prevention strategies like the toileting schedule.

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