ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Hyperactivity
- B. Hypervigilance
- C. Restlessness
- D. Avoidance of social situations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypervigilance. Individuals with PTSD often experience hypervigilance, which involves being overly alert, easily startled, and constantly scanning their environment for potential threats. This heightened state of awareness is a common response to the trauma experienced. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; restlessness may occur but is not as characteristic as hypervigilance, and although avoidance of social situations can be a symptom of PTSD, hypervigilance is more directly associated with the disorder.
2. A client needs a 24-hour urine collection initiated. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the procedure?
- A. I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.
- B. I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.
- C. I flushed what I urinated at 7 am and have saved the rest since.
- D. I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is correct because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the procedure, which involves discarding the first urine of the day at the specified time and then saving all subsequent urine for the next 24 hours. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect an understanding of the correct procedure. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements are not part of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice B is incorrect as it does not specify discarding the first urine. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions filling up the bottle quickly, which is not the correct way to collect a 24-hour urine sample.
3. What are the key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia?
- A. Hypoglycemia: Sweating, trembling; Hyperglycemia: Frequent urination, thirst
- B. Hypoglycemia: Increased thirst; Hyperglycemia: Sweating, confusion
- C. Hypoglycemia: Increased appetite; Hyperglycemia: Blurred vision
- D. Hypoglycemia: Dizziness; Hyperglycemia: Low blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypoglycemia typically presents with sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia is characterized by frequent urination and thirst. Therefore, the correct key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are that hypoglycemia includes symptoms like sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia involves symptoms such as frequent urination and thirst. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the characteristic symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, as stated in the question.
4. What are the common signs and symptoms of dehydration in the elderly?
- A. Dry mouth, confusion, and decreased skin turgor
- B. Increased heart rate and muscle cramps
- C. Fever, rapid breathing, and increased urine output
- D. Increased thirst and difficulty walking
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Dehydration in the elderly is often signaled by dry mouth, confusion, and decreased skin turgor due to reduced fluid intake. Choice A is the correct answer as these are common signs and symptoms of dehydration in the elderly.\nIncorrect Rationales: Option B (Increased heart rate and muscle cramps) are more associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or electrolyte imbalances rather than dehydration. Option C (Fever, rapid breathing, and increased urine output) are signs of other medical conditions such as infections or diabetes insipidus. Option D (Increased thirst and difficulty walking) can be seen in various situations but are not specific signs of dehydration in the elderly.
5. A nurse is caring for a client following an acute myocardial infarction. The client is concerned that providing self-care will be difficult due to extreme fatigue. Which of the following strategies should the nurse implement to promote the client's independence?
- A. Request an occupational therapy consult to determine the need for assistive devices
- B. Assign assistive personnel to perform self-care tasks for the client
- C. Instruct the client to focus on gradually resuming self-care tasks
- D. Ask the client if a family member is available to assist with his care
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Instructing the client to focus on gradually resuming self-care tasks is the most appropriate strategy to promote independence following an acute myocardial infarction. This approach allows the client to regain confidence and control over their self-care activities without feeling overwhelmed. Requesting an occupational therapy consult (Choice A) may be beneficial but is not the immediate solution to promote independence. Assigning assistive personnel (Choice B) to perform tasks for the client does not encourage independence. Asking if a family member is available for assistance (Choice D) does not directly promote the client's independence.
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