Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer purified protein derivative (PPD) to a client who has suspected tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Ensure the injection produces a wheal on the skin
• B. Administer the injection in the client's thigh
• C. Use an intradermal needle for the injection
• D. Avoid touching the site after injection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ensure the injection produces a wheal on the skin. A wheal indicates that the PPD has been administered correctly, allowing for the proper interpretation of results. Administering the injection in the client's thigh (choice B) is not the recommended site for PPD administration; it should be administered intradermally. Using an 18-gauge needle (choice C) is unnecessary and not the standard practice for PPD administration as a smaller gauge needle is preferred for intradermal injections. Massaging the site after injection (choice D) can lead to inaccurate results by dispersing the solution, so it is important to avoid touching the site after the injection to prevent altering the test results.

2. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing fatigue. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage the client's fatigue?

• A. Encourage the client to take short naps during the day
• B. Instruct the client to remain on bedrest
• C. Provide the client with a high-calorie diet
• D. Encourage the client to increase activity levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention to manage fatigue in a client receiving chemotherapy is to encourage the client to take short naps during the day. Fatigue is a common side effect of chemotherapy, and allowing the client to rest can help combat this symptom. Instructing the client to remain on bedrest (Choice B) is not recommended as it may lead to deconditioning and worsen fatigue. Providing a high-calorie diet (Choice C) may be beneficial for overall nutrition but does not directly address fatigue. Encouraging the client to increase activity levels (Choice D) may exacerbate fatigue instead of alleviating it.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?

• A. WBC count 2,900 /mm3.
• B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dl.
• C. Hgb 14 g/dl.
• D. Heart rate 58/min.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 2,900/mm3 indicates leukopenia, which is a serious side effect of clozapine and contraindicates its use. Leukopenia is a significant concern with clozapine therapy due to the risk of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Monitoring the WBC count is crucial to detect this adverse effect early. The other options (B, C, and D) are within normal ranges and not contraindications for administering clozapine.

4. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with sepsis?

• A. Administer IV antibiotics
• B. Monitor vital signs
• C. Administer fluids
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Managing a patient with sepsis requires a multi-faceted approach. Administering IV antibiotics is crucial to combat the underlying infection. Monitoring vital signs such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and temperature helps assess the patient's response to treatment and identify any deterioration. Administering fluids is essential to maintain adequate blood pressure and organ perfusion. Therefore, all the options are integral components of sepsis management, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all essential in the comprehensive care of a patient with sepsis. Omitting any of these aspects can lead to suboptimal outcomes, as each plays a critical role in addressing different aspects of sepsis management.

5. A client diagnosed with dementia wanders the halls of the locked nursing unit during the day. To ensure the client's safety while walking in the halls, the nurse should do which of the following?

• A. Administer PRN haloperidol (Haldol) to decrease the need to walk
• B. Assess the client's gait for steadiness
• C. Restrain the client in a geriatric chair
• D. Administer PRN lorazepam (Ativan) to provide sedation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client's gait for steadiness is the most appropriate action to ensure the safety of a client with dementia while walking. This allows the nurse to identify any issues that may increase the risk of falls or accidents. Administering PRN haloperidol or lorazepam is not indicated as the first-line approach in managing wandering behavior and can have adverse effects like increased risk of falls, confusion, or oversedation. Restraint use should be avoided whenever possible, as it can lead to physical and psychological harm to the client.

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