ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with a suspected urinary tract infection (UTI)?
- A. Antibiotic Therapy
- B. Hydration
- C. Pain Management
- D. Patient Education
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing and managing a patient with a suspected UTI, the priority is to start antibiotic therapy to treat the infection. Antibiotics are crucial in eliminating the bacteria causing the UTI. While hydration is important to help flush out the bacteria, pain management can help alleviate discomfort but is not the primary treatment. Patient education is vital for prevention and management but is not the immediate intervention required for a suspected UTI.
2. Which assessment finding is expected with myxedema?
- A. Increased pulse rate
- B. Decreased temperature
- C. Fine tremors
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Myxedema is characterized by a decreased metabolic rate, leading to manifestations such as decreased temperature. Therefore, the correct assessment finding expected with myxedema is a decreased temperature. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because myxedema typically presents with a decreased pulse rate, not an increased pulse rate, absence of fine tremors (which are more common in hyperthyroidism), and weight gain rather than weight loss.
3. Which intervention should be included for a client with heart failure?
- A. Encourage increased fluid intake
- B. Weigh the client daily to monitor fluid balance
- C. Restrict fluid intake during meals
- D. Limit daily activity to prevent fatigue
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Weighing the client daily to monitor fluid balance is crucial for clients with heart failure. This intervention helps assess for fluid retention or depletion, providing valuable information for managing the condition effectively. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice A) is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake during meals (Choice C) may lead to dehydration, which is harmful for clients with heart failure. Limiting daily activity (Choice D) is not recommended as appropriate activity levels should be encouraged for overall well-being, under guidance to prevent excessive fatigue.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?
- A. A Braden scale score of 20
- B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
- C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
- D. A Norton scale score of 18
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.
5. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who is at risk of developing pressure injuries. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Place the client in a prone position
- B. Place the client in a 30-degree lateral position
- C. Encourage the client to reposition every 4 hours
- D. Place the client in a high Fowler's position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Place the client in a 30-degree lateral position. Positioning the client laterally reduces pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and helping prevent pressure injuries. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) increases pressure on the bony prominences, raising the risk of pressure injuries. Similarly, placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice D) can also increase pressure on certain areas. While encouraging the client to reposition every 4 hours (choice C) is important, the specific lateral positioning is more beneficial in preventing pressure injuries.
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