a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for sertraline to treat depression which of the following statements by the client indicates an
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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A client has a prescription for sertraline to treat depression. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the medication treatment plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Difficulty sleeping is a common side effect of sertraline, an SSRI used to treat depression. Clients should be educated to expect this, especially during the early stages of treatment. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline may take a few weeks to show its full effect. Choice B is incorrect as increased urination is not a common side effect of sertraline. Choice D is unrelated to the side effects or management of sertraline.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which action should the nurse take if the client develops toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, administering calcium gluconate IV is crucial as it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate helps reverse the effects of magnesium sulfate, especially when signs of toxicity like respiratory depression or loss of reflexes occur. Increasing the magnesium sulfate infusion would worsen toxicity. Administering IV fluids may be beneficial for hydration but does not address magnesium sulfate toxicity. Hydralazine is used to manage hypertension, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.

3. A client with multiple sclerosis reports diplopia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with multiple sclerosis reporting diplopia is to recommend alternating eye patches during the day. This strategy can help relieve diplopia (double vision) by allowing each eye to rest alternately, reducing eye strain. Encouraging the client to focus on a distant object (Choice A) is not an appropriate intervention for diplopia in this case. Applying a warm compress to the client's eyes (Choice B) and administering artificial tears (Choice D) are not effective interventions for diplopia associated with multiple sclerosis.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

5. A client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform fundal massage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contractions, which is the initial action to reduce postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Checking vital signs (choice C) is important but not the priority when active bleeding is present. Administering oxytocin IV (choice B) may be needed but is not the priority action. Encouraging the client to void (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of postpartum hemorrhage and should not be the priority.

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