a client who is having suicidal thoughts tells the nurse it just doesnt seem worth it anymore why not end my misery which of the following responses b
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A client who is having suicidal thoughts tells the nurse, “It just doesn’t seem worth it anymore. Why not end my misery?” Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate response by the nurse is to ask about the client's plan to end their life. This question helps to assess the severity of the client's suicidal ideation and the immediacy of the risk, allowing the nurse to determine the appropriate level of intervention. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the immediate risk assessment needed in this situation.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has DVT. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with DVT is to elevate the affected extremity when in bed. Elevating the affected extremity helps improve venous return, reduces edema, alleviates discomfort, and promotes healing in clients with DVT. Limiting fluid intake can be detrimental as adequate hydration is important for circulation. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge clots and worsen the condition. Applying cold packs can cause vasoconstriction, which is not recommended for DVT as it can impede blood flow further.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients should be instructed to complete the entire course of antibiotics, even if they start feeling better, to prevent antibiotic resistance and recurrence of infection.

4. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

5. While receiving a change of shift report on a group of clients, which patient should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client with a fractured femur and sharp chest pain first. Sharp chest pain in this client may indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. The other options describe important patient conditions but do not pose an immediate threat to life like a potential pulmonary embolism does.

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