Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with the parents of a newborn. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. We will place the baby on its back to sleep
• B. We will give the baby a pacifier at bedtime
• C. We will keep the baby's crib free of blankets and toys
• D. We will leave the baby's diaper off to prevent diaper rash

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Leaving the baby's diaper off to prevent diaper rash is not recommended because it increases the risk of infection. Proper diaper hygiene and frequent diaper changes are more effective in preventing diaper rash. Choices A, B, and C are correct as placing the baby on its back to sleep, giving the baby a pacifier at bedtime, and keeping the baby's crib free of blankets and toys are appropriate measures to ensure the newborn's safety and reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adults (OA). The provider should identify that which of the following is a risk factor that places OA at an increased risk for developing infections?

• A. Improved circulation
• B. Increased immune function
• C. Lowered immune system function
• D. Dehydration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Lowered immune system function.' As individuals age, their immune system tends to weaken, making them more susceptible to infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because improved circulation and increased immune function would typically reduce the risk of infections, while dehydration can impact overall health but is not directly related to immune system function in the context of infection risk.

3. A newly licensed nurse tells a charge nurse he is unsure about accepting telephone medication prescriptions. Which of the following providers should the charge nurse identify as having the legal ability to give telephone medication prescriptions?

• A. Nurse midwives
• B. Physical therapists
• C. Pharmacists
• D. Physician assistants

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Physician assistants are healthcare providers who are licensed to prescribe medications. They have the legal ability to give telephone orders for medications. Nurse midwives primarily focus on providing prenatal care and assisting during labor and delivery. Physical therapists specialize in rehabilitation services. Pharmacists dispense medications and provide medication counseling. Therefore, among the options provided, physician assistants are the correct choice for giving telephone medication prescriptions.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

• A. Increased urinary output
• B. Ototoxicity
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

5. A healthcare professional is completing a nutritional assessment on a client and measures body mass index (BMI). Which of the following readings correlates with a BMI of an overweight client?

• A. 18.5
• B. 24.9
• C. 25
• D. 32

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A BMI of 25-29.9 is considered overweight. Therefore, a BMI of 25 correlates with an overweight client. A BMI of 18.5-24.9 indicates a healthy weight. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they fall into the healthy weight or obese categories, not overweight.

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