ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client is prescribed tramadol for pain management. Which of the following should the nurse educate the client about?
- A. It is a non-opioid analgesic
- B. It can cause sedation
- C. It has no risk for dependence
- D. It can be taken as needed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tramadol can cause sedation, so the nurse should educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because tramadol is actually an opioid analgesic. Choice C is incorrect as tramadol does carry a risk for dependence, especially with prolonged use. Choice D is not entirely accurate as tramadol is usually prescribed on a scheduled basis rather than as needed.
2. When educating a client about valproic acid, which instruction is essential?
- A. Monitor for rash
- B. Expect weight loss
- C. Consider it safe during pregnancy
- D. Purchase it over-the-counter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for rash. Valproic acid can lead to severe skin rashes, and patients must be vigilant to report any rash promptly. Choice B is incorrect as valproic acid is more likely to cause weight gain. Choice C is incorrect because valproic acid is associated with birth defects and should be avoided during pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as valproic acid is a prescription medication and not available over-the-counter.
3. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum?
- A. Encourage high-calorie meals
- B. Administer intravenous fluids
- C. Provide frequent small meals
- D. Limit fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous fluids. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe, persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. The priority intervention is to administer intravenous fluids to maintain hydration. Encouraging high-calorie meals (Choice A) may exacerbate symptoms due to increased gastric stimulation. Providing frequent small meals (Choice C) may not be effective in severe cases where continuous vomiting occurs. Limiting fluid intake (Choice D) is contraindicated in hyperemesis gravidarum as dehydration is a significant concern.
4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed digoxin. Which of the following should alert the nurse to possible digitalis toxicity?
- A. Anorexia and weakness
- B. Hyperactivity and hunger
- C. Tachycardia and increased urination
- D. Polyphagia and polydipsia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Digitalis toxicity is a serious complication of digoxin therapy, particularly in older adults. Early symptoms include anorexia, nausea, and generalized weakness. Anorexia and weakness are common indicators of digitalis toxicity. Hyperactivity, hunger, tachycardia, increased urination, polyphagia, and polydipsia are not typical signs of digitalis toxicity. Monitoring for anorexia and weakness can help detect toxicity early and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Tinnitus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone levels, which results in potassium retention. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and tinnitus (Choice D) are also not typically associated with enalapril use.
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