ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client is prescribed tramadol for pain management. Which of the following should the nurse educate the client about?
- A. It is a non-opioid analgesic
- B. It can cause sedation
- C. It has no risk for dependence
- D. It can be taken as needed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tramadol can cause sedation, so the nurse should educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because tramadol is actually an opioid analgesic. Choice C is incorrect as tramadol does carry a risk for dependence, especially with prolonged use. Choice D is not entirely accurate as tramadol is usually prescribed on a scheduled basis rather than as needed.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of dehydration. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Dry mucous membranes
- C. Decreased urination
- D. Both B and C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Signs of dehydration include dry mucous membranes and decreased urination, among other symptoms. Bradycardia is not a typical sign of dehydration; instead, tachycardia (increased heart rate) is more commonly associated with dehydration. Therefore, option A is incorrect. While dry mucous membranes and decreased urination are indicative of dehydration, selecting only one of these symptoms would not provide a comprehensive assessment. Hence, option D, which includes both dry mucous membranes and decreased urination, is the correct choice.
3. A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?
- A. I cannot change my instructions once they are made
- B. My doctor will need to approve my advance directives
- C. I need an attorney to witness my signature on the advance directives
- D. I have the right to refuse treatment
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement indicates an understanding of advance directives because advance directives allow individuals to express their treatment preferences, including the right to refuse treatment if they choose to do so. Choice A is incorrect because individuals can update or change their advance directives as needed. Choice B is incorrect because advance directives are based on the individual's preferences, not the doctor's approval. Choice C is incorrect as witnessing an advance directive typically requires a witness who is not an attorney, depending on the state's specific requirements.
4. A nurse is caring for a newborn in the nursery following a circumcision. The newborn's grandparent, who does not have an identification bracelet, requests to take the newborn to his mother's room. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify security.
- B. Respectfully deny the grandparent’s request.
- C. Contact the mother for verification.
- D. Escort the grandparent and newborn to the room.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to respectfully deny the grandparent's request. In healthcare settings, strict security protocols are in place to ensure the safety of newborns. Only individuals with proper identification bracelets are allowed to transport newborns to prevent unauthorized individuals from taking them. Contacting the mother for verification would be time-consuming and may not be feasible immediately. Escorting the grandparent and newborn without proper identification would violate security protocols and compromise the newborn's safety. Notifying security should be done only if there is a threat or concern for safety, which is not the case in this scenario. Therefore, the best course of action is for the nurse to respectfully deny the grandparent's request to uphold the safety and security measures in place.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a potential prenatal complication?
- A. Periodic tingling of fingers
- B. Absence of clonus
- C. Leg cramps
- D. Blurred vision
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Blurred vision can be an indicator of serious conditions such as preeclampsia, which involves hypertension and can lead to significant maternal and fetal complications. Periodic tingling of fingers, absence of clonus, and leg cramps are common discomforts during pregnancy but are not typically associated with serious prenatal complications like preeclampsia. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
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