Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed clopidogrel. What laboratory result should be monitored by the nurse?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Creatinine
• C. Blood glucose
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is prescribed clopidogrel, monitoring the platelet count is essential. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in assessing the risk of thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of clopidogrel. Monitoring white blood cell count, creatinine, or blood glucose is not directly related to the action or side effects of clopidogrel, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

2. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker commonly used in heart failure to reduce blood pressure. One of the common side effects of metoprolol is hypotension, which can lead to dizziness, lightheadedness, and even fainting. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is essential to prevent adverse effects and ensure patient safety. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Tachycardia is not a common side effect of metoprolol, as it actually reduces heart rate. Hypertension is also not a common side effect of this medication, as it is intended to lower blood pressure. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of metoprolol.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Prime the blood tubing with normal saline.
• B. Verify the client’s identity using two identifiers.
• C. Infuse the blood rapidly over 30 minutes.
• D. Obtain the client’s vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the client’s identity using two identifiers is a critical patient safety measure to ensure the correct patient receives the blood transfusion. This process involves checking the patient's identity using at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number, to prevent administration errors. Priming the blood tubing with normal saline is necessary to ensure there are no air bubbles in the tubing, but it is not the immediate action required before administering the blood. Infusing packed red blood cells over 30 minutes is generally too rapid and can lead to adverse reactions; a slower rate is recommended for safe administration. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion is not frequent enough to monitor the client adequately for potential transfusion reactions or complications; vital signs should be monitored more frequently, especially during the initial phase of the transfusion.

4. A client has a new prescription for sertraline. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Monitor for signs of weight gain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to 'Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.' Grapefruit juice can increase sertraline levels, leading to an elevated risk of side effects. Instructing the client to avoid grapefruit juice is crucial to prevent potential interactions that could impact the effectiveness and safety of the medication. The other options are not directly related to sertraline administration. Taking the medication in the morning may vary depending on individual preferences or the prescriber's directions. Taking the medication with a full glass of water is a general instruction for many medications and not specific to sertraline. Monitoring for signs of weight gain is important but not a direct instruction related to taking sertraline.

5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with chronic stable angina. Which symptom would indicate that the client's condition is worsening?

• A. Increased shortness of breath with exertion
• B. Improved tolerance to activity
• C. Decreased frequency of chest pain
• D. Stable blood pressure readings

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased shortness of breath with exertion is a concerning symptom in a client with chronic stable angina as it may indicate inadequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle, suggesting a worsening condition. This could be a sign of reduced blood flow to the heart, leading to increased work for the heart during exertion, resulting in increased shortness of breath. Choice B, improved tolerance to activity, is incorrect as it would indicate a positive response to treatment. Choice C, decreased frequency of chest pain, is incorrect as it would also suggest an improvement in the client's condition. Choice D, stable blood pressure readings, are not indicative of a worsening condition in chronic stable angina.

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