Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that works by dilating blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial as it can be a potential adverse effect of this medication. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypertension is the condition enalapril is used to treat, so it would not be an adverse effect. Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Enalapril does not typically cause hyperglycemia, as it primarily affects blood pressure regulation.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Weight gain
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Albuterol is a bronchodilator medication commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma. Tachycardia, an increased heart rate, can be a potential side effect of albuterol, indicating excessive stimulation of the beta receptors. This side effect should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly to assess the need for further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and drowsiness are not typically associated with albuterol use and are less likely to require immediate reporting compared to tachycardia.

3. A client has a new prescription for sertraline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication at bedtime.
• B. I may experience sexual dysfunction.
• C. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• D. I may experience weight loss while taking this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of sertraline. When the client mentions this potential side effect, it indicates an understanding of the teaching about the medication's effects. This response shows awareness of a significant adverse effect that the client should be informed about when starting sertraline. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking sertraline at bedtime, avoiding grapefruit juice, or experiencing weight loss are not key teaching points associated with this medication.

4. A hypertensive client who has been taking metoprolol (Lopressor) has been prescribed to decrease the dose of the medication. The client asks the nurse why this must be done over a period of 1 to 2 weeks. In formulating a response, the nurse incorporates the understanding that abrupt withdrawal could affect the client in which way?

• A. Result in hypoglycemia
• B. Give the client insomnia
• C. Precipitate rebound hypertension
• D. Cause enhanced side effects of other prescribed medications

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Abruptly stopping metoprolol can lead to rebound hypertension, causing a sudden increase in blood pressure due to the sudden withdrawal of the medication. Gradually tapering the dose helps the body adjust and reduces the risk of this adverse effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Stopping metoprolol suddenly is not known to result in hypoglycemia, insomnia, or enhanced side effects of other medications.

5. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

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