Nursing Elites

1. The client is being ambulated due to activity intolerance caused by bacterial endocarditis. How can the nurse determine that the client is best tolerating ambulation?

• A. Mild dyspnea after walking 10 feet
• B. Minimal chest pain rated 1 on a 1-to-10 pain scale
• C. Pulse rate that increases from 68 to 94 beats per minute
• D. Blood pressure that increases from 114/82 to 118/86 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A slight increase in blood pressure without significant symptoms indicates that the client is tolerating the activity. In this scenario, a mild increase in blood pressure without other symptoms is a positive sign of tolerance to ambulation despite the underlying condition of bacterial endocarditis. Choices A, B, and C are not the best indicators of tolerance to ambulation in this case. Mild dyspnea after walking a short distance, minimal chest pain, and an increase in pulse rate are common signs that the activity might not be well-tolerated by the client with a history of bacterial endocarditis.

2. The LPN/LVN is collecting data on a client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris who takes nitroglycerin for chest pain. During the admission, the client reports chest pain. The nurse should immediately ask the client which question?

• A. Are you having any nausea?
• B. Where is the pain located?
• C. Are you allergic to any medications?
• D. Do you have your nitroglycerin with you?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with angina pectoris, determining the location of chest pain is crucial for assessing the potential severity and cause. This information helps the nurse to further evaluate the nature of the pain and its probable origin, aiding in timely and appropriate interventions. Choices A, C, and D are not as immediately relevant as determining the location of the chest pain when assessing a client with angina pectoris.

3. A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. The nurse listens to breath sounds, expecting to hear which breath sounds bilaterally?

• A. Rhonchi
• B. Crackles
• C. Wheezes
• D. Diminished breath sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of pulmonary edema, which can occur as a complication of myocardial infarction. Crackles are typically heard in cases of pulmonary edema, characterized by fluid accumulation in the lungs. These crackling sounds are heard during inspiration and sometimes expiration and are an indication of fluid-filled alveoli. Therefore, when assessing the client with these symptoms, the nurse would expect to hear crackles bilaterally. Rhonchi, which are coarse rattling respiratory sounds, are typically associated with conditions like bronchitis or pneumonia, not pulmonary edema. Wheezes are high-pitched musical sounds heard in conditions like asthma or COPD, not commonly present in pulmonary edema. Diminished breath sounds suggest decreased airflow or lung consolidation, not typical findings in pulmonary edema.

4. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is on oxygen therapy. Which action should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Set the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Remove oxygen while the client is eating.
• C. Ensure the client wears a nasal cannula instead of a face mask.
• D. Maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For clients with COPD, too much oxygen can suppress their drive to breathe, leading to hypoventilation. Therefore, the nurse should maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia to prevent complications while ensuring adequate oxygenation. Setting the oxygen flow rate too high (Choice A) can be detrimental for the client with COPD. Removing oxygen while the client is eating (Choice B) can compromise oxygenation, which is essential even during meals. While nasal cannulas are commonly used, the choice of oxygen delivery device depends on the client's needs; there may be situations where a face mask (Choice C) is more appropriate.

5. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Avoid using a soft toothbrush.
• B. Report any signs of bleeding.
• C. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.
• D. Take the medication with food.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any signs of bleeding when taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is essential to monitor for any signs of abnormal bleeding and report them promptly for appropriate management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Instructing the client to avoid using a soft toothbrush is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Increasing the intake of leafy green vegetables is not recommended as they contain vitamin K, which can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects. Taking warfarin with food can be inconsistent and may not result in optimal absorption.

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