Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use the inhaler every 4 hours around the clock.
• B. Shake the inhaler well before use.
• C. Rinse your mouth with water after each use.
• D. Use the inhaler while lying down.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shaking the inhaler well before use is crucial as it helps ensure proper mixing of the medication, which is essential for effective delivery of the drug to the lungs. This step is important for optimal therapeutic effects of albuterol inhalation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Using the inhaler every 4 hours around the clock without specifying a maximum number of doses can lead to overuse. Rinsing the mouth with water after each use is typically advised for inhaled corticosteroids to reduce the risk of oral thrush, not for albuterol. Using the inhaler while lying down is not recommended as it may lead to improper medication delivery to the lungs.

2. The client is being taught about the use of sublingual nitroglycerin for chest pain. Which instruction should be provided?

• A. Swallow the tablet whole with water.
• B. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve.
• C. Chew the tablet and then swallow.
• D. Place the tablet between the cheek and gum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct method for administering sublingual nitroglycerin is to place the tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve. This route of administration facilitates rapid absorption of the medication into the bloodstream, enabling quick relief of chest pain associated with angina or heart conditions. Choice A is incorrect because sublingual nitroglycerin should not be swallowed whole. Choice C is wrong as chewing the tablet can lead to the rapid release of the drug, causing adverse effects like headaches or dizziness. Choice D is also incorrect as the tablet should not be placed between the cheek and gum, but under the tongue for proper absorption.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

4. The client is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that works by dilating blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial as it can be a potential adverse effect of this medication. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypertension is the condition enalapril is used to treat, so it would not be an adverse effect. Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Enalapril does not typically cause hyperglycemia, as it primarily affects blood pressure regulation.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bradycardia is a significant finding in a client taking digoxin as it is a sign of digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia can indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse reaction to the medication, potentially leading to serious complications. Therefore, it is crucial for the healthcare professional to report bradycardia to the provider promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Weight gain, dry cough, and hypokalemia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity and may have other underlying causes. While weight gain and cough can be monitored, bradycardia requires immediate attention due to its potential link to digoxin toxicity.

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