ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is planning to administer an injection of morphine to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure client safety?
- A. Instruct the client to take a deep breath during administration.
- B. Administer the medication over 30 seconds.
- C. Verify the client’s pain level.
- D. Have naloxone available in case of respiratory depression.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to have naloxone available in case of respiratory depression. Morphine is an opioid that can lead to respiratory depression, especially in higher doses. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose and should be readily accessible when administering morphine to reverse respiratory depression if it occurs. Instructing the client to take a deep breath during administration (choice A) is not directly related to ensuring safety in this scenario. Administering the medication over 30 seconds (choice B) may help with the comfort of the client but does not address the potential risk of respiratory depression. Verifying the client's pain level (choice C) is important but not the primary action to ensure safety when administering morphine.
2. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication with a meal.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the medication with an antacid.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid) is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This ensures optimal absorption of levothyroxine. Taking it with a meal can interfere with absorption due to food interactions. Taking it at bedtime may lead to inconsistent absorption as it should be taken at the same time every day in the morning. Taking it with an antacid can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, making it less effective.
3. A client with gout is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of purine-rich foods.
- B. I should decrease my intake of purine-rich foods.
- C. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
- D. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Decreasing the intake of purine-rich foods is essential in managing gout as purines break down into uric acid, contributing to gout symptoms. Increasing purine-rich foods would exacerbate the condition by increasing uric acid levels. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Choices C and D are also incorrect as increasing sodium-rich foods (choice C) is not recommended for gout management, and decreasing potassium-rich foods (choice D) is unrelated to gout.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin and NPH insulin. What is the proper sequence of events the nurse should follow?
- A. Inspect the vials for contamination.
- B. Withdraw regular insulin first, then NPH.
- C. Inject air into the NPH insulin vial first.
- D. Roll the NPH insulin vial between the hands to mix.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct sequence of events for administering regular insulin and NPH insulin begins with inspecting the vials for contamination to ensure patient safety. Rolling the NPH insulin vial between the hands to mix and injecting air into the NPH insulin vial should follow the inspection step. Afterward, the nurse should inject air into the regular insulin vial and then withdraw the regular insulin first. Option A is the correct answer as it outlines the initial crucial step in the administration process. Option B is incorrect as it provides the incorrect order of withdrawing the insulins. Option C is incorrect as injecting air into the NPH insulin vial should come after inspecting the vials. Option D is incorrect as rolling the NPH insulin vial should be done after inspecting the vials and injecting air into the NPH insulin vial.
5. A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?
- A. Placenta previa
- B. Prolapsed cord
- C. Incompetent cervix
- D. Abruptio placentae
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding are indicative of abruptio placentae, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent potential complications for both the client and the fetus. Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, not sudden abdominal pain. Prolapsed cord presents with visible umbilical cord protruding from the vagina and is not associated with abruptio placentae symptoms. Incompetent cervix typically manifests as painless cervical dilation in the second trimester, not sudden abdominal pain and bleeding as seen in abruptio placentae.
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